AGM Default 1 question
Q1AGM Default

If a company fails to hold its Annual General Meeting (AGM) within the statutory time limits, which authority can a member apply to for an order directing the company to call the AGM?

AThe Registrar of Companies (ROC).
BThe Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
CThe National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
DThe High Court of the state where the registered office is located.
AGM Notice 1 question
Q2AGM Notice

A public company, which is not a one person company or a small company, wishes to call its Annual General Meeting (AGM). What is the minimum clear notice period that must generally be provided to its members for convening this meeting, assuming the articles do not specify a longer period?

A14 clear days
B21 clear days
C25 clear days
D30 clear days
AGM Quorum 2 questions
Q3AGM Quorum

An Annual General Meeting (AGM) of a public company (not a Section 8 company) is adjourned because the quorum was not present within half an hour from the appointed time. When will the adjourned meeting typically be held?

AThe next day at the same time and place.
BOn the same day of the next week, at the same time and place, or as determined by the Board.
CWithin 30 days, on a date fixed by the Chairman.
DThe meeting stands cancelled and must be reconvened with fresh notice.
Q4AGM Quorum

A public company has 70 members personally present at its Annual General Meeting. The Articles of the company are silent on quorum. Is the quorum requirement met for transacting business?

ANo, minimum 100 members are required for a public company with more than 5000 members.
BYes, if the company has between 1000 and 5000 members, as 15 members are needed.
CNo, the quorum is 5 members for any public company if Articles are silent.
DYes, if the company has less than 1000 members, as 5 members personally present are sufficient.
Allotment Of Securities 1 question
Q5Allotment Of Securities

What is the time limit for a company to file a return of allotment (Form PAS-3) with the Registrar of Companies (ROC) after making any allotment of securities?

AWithin 15 days of allotment.
BWithin 30 days of allotment.
CWithin 45 days of allotment.
DWithin 60 days of allotment.
Alternate Director 1 question
Q6Alternate Director

A director of a company is proceeding abroad for more than three months. Can the Board appoint an alternate director to act for him during his absence?

ANo, alternate directors can only be appointed by shareholders in a general meeting.
BYes, if the Articles of Association of the company authorize such an appointment by the Board, or if a resolution is passed by the company in general meeting.
CYes, the Board can always appoint an alternate director in such cases without any specific authorization.
DOnly if the original director is an executive director.
Amalgamation 3 questions
Q7Amalgamation

A Managing Director (MD) of Company A resigns because they refuse to join Company B, which is the amalgamated company after Company A merges with Company B. Can the MD claim compensation for loss of office from Company A or B?

AYes, if their contract provided for termination compensation.
BYes, from the amalgamated Company B.
CNo, generally compensation is not payable if the loss of office is a consequence of amalgamation and they are offered similar employment in new co. but refuse.
DOnly if Company A initiated the amalgamation wrongfully.
Q8Amalgamation

If a Government Company (Company A) amalgamates with a Non-Government Company (Company B), and Company B is the resulting entity, what will be the status of the resulting Company B?

AIt will be a Non-Government Company.
BIt will be a Government Company.
CIts status will depend on the shareholding pattern post-amalgamation.
DIt will be deemed a public financial institution.
Q9Amalgamation

Under what circumstances does the Central Government have the power to order the amalgamation of companies in the public interest, even without the companies themselves applying for it?

AOnly if all involved companies are Government companies.
BIf the CG is of the opinion that it is essential in the public interest.
COnly if the companies are sick industrial units.
DIf the companies have defaulted in filing their financial statements for three consecutive years.
Annual Return 1 question
Q10Annual Return

For a private company (that is not a small company or OPC), who is primarily required to sign the Annual Return before it is filed with the Registrar of Companies?

AAny one director and the Company Secretary; or if no CS, by a director and a PCS.
BTwo directors, one of whom shall be the Managing Director, if any.
COne director and the CEO, if appointed.
DOnly the Company Secretary of the company.
Appeals SC 1 question
Q11Appeals SC

An appeal against an order of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) can be made to the Supreme Court. What is the initial time limit for filing such an appeal, and what is the maximum extension that can be granted?

A30 days initial limit, plus 30 days extension.
B45 days initial limit, plus 45 days extension.
C60 days initial limit, plus 60 days extension.
D90 days initial limit, plus 30 days extension.
Articles Of Association 4 questions
Q12Articles Of Association

How can entrenchment provisions, which make certain specified provisions of the Articles of Association more restrictive to amend (e.g., requiring a higher voting threshold than a special resolution), be included in the Articles of a private company after its incorporation?

ABy passing an ordinary resolution and filing with ROC.
BBy passing a special resolution and filing with ROC.
CBy obtaining consent from all the members of the company and amending the Articles.
DSuch provisions cannot be added after incorporation, only at the time of formation.
Q13Articles Of Association

If the Articles of a company require a specific resolution to be passed by a 90% majority of votes, this type of provision in the Articles is known as:

AAn entrenchment provision.
BA special majority clause.
CAn overriding provision.
DA conditional resolution clause.
Q14Articles Of Association

If a company alters its Articles of Association by a special resolution to insert entrenchment provisions, what further step is required regarding the Registrar of Companies (ROC)?

ANo further step is required after passing the special resolution.
BThe company must obtain prior approval from the ROC before passing the resolution.
CNotice of the entrenchment provisions must be given to the ROC in the prescribed form.
DThe ROC must be invited to attend the general meeting where the resolution is passed.
Q15Articles Of Association

If a company's Articles of Association contain entrenchment provisions making certain amendments more restrictive than a special resolution, when can such provisions be initially included in the Articles?

AOnly after the company has been in existence for at least one year.
BAt the time of the company's formation or by an amendment agreed to by all members (private co.) or by SR (public co.).
COnly by an order of the National Company Law Tribunal.
DOnly in the Articles of a Section 8 company.
Associate Company 1 question
Q16Associate Company

Under the Companies Act, 2013, when is one company considered an "associate company" of another?

AIf one company holds at least 10% of the total voting power of the other company.
BIf one company has significant influence over the other, meaning control of at least 20% of total voting power, or control of or participation in business decisions under an agreement.
CIf both companies have at least one common director on their Boards.
DIf one company is a subsidiary of the other company's holding company.
Audit CARO 1 question
Q17Audit CARO

A company fails to file its financial statements with the ROC for three consecutive financial years. As per CARO, 2020, is the statutory auditor required to report on this specific non- compliance in their audit report?

ANo, CARO does not cover compliance with ROC filings.
BYes, CARO requires reporting on whether undisputed statutory dues (which can include ROC filing fees if overdue) have been regularly deposited.
CYes, CARO specifically requires reporting on whether the company has defaulted in filing financial statements or annual returns with ROC.
DOnly if the non-filing has resulted in a material misstatement in the financial statements.
Audit Report CARO 1 question
Q18Audit Report CARO

Which statutory report, providing an opinion on the company's internal financial controls with reference to financial statements, is typically required to be included with the auditor's report for certain classes of companies?

ACorporate Governance Report.
BManagement Discussion and Analysis (MD&A).
CBusiness Responsibility Report.
DReport under CARO (Company Auditor's Report Order), which includes comments on IFC.
Auditor Limits 1 question
Q19Auditor Limits

What is the maximum number of audit assignments (for companies as per Companies Act, 2013) that an individual auditor can accept at any given time, including audits of small companies and OPCs?

A10 company audits.
B20 company audits, excluding OPCs, small companies, and dormant companies.
C30 company audits.
DNo specific limit, depends on the auditor's capacity.
Auditor Reappointment 1 question
Q20Auditor Reappointment

In which of the following situations would an existing auditor of a company NOT be automatically re-appointed at an Annual General Meeting (AGM) without any resolution being passed?

AIf they are not willing to be re-appointed and have notified the company.
BIf a resolution has been passed at that meeting to appoint some other auditor.
CIf a resolution has been passed at that meeting expressly providing that they shall not be re- appointed.
DAll of the above situations.
Auditor Reporting Fraud 1 question
Q21Auditor Reporting Fraud

What is the typical consequence if an auditor, during the course of their audit, has reason to believe that an offence involving fraud is being or has been committed against the company by its officers or employees, and the amount involved is Rs. 1 crore or more?

AReport the matter only to the Audit Committee.
BReport the matter immediately to the Central Government (MCA) within a prescribed timeframe after reporting to Board/Audit Committee.
CInclude a note in the audit report without further specific reporting.
DReport the matter to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) directly.
Board Meetings 3 questions
Q22Board Meetings

For a company that is not a Small Company or a Dormant Company, what is the maximum permissible gap between two consecutive Board Meetings?

A90 days
B120 days
C180 days
DOne calendar quarter
Q23Board Meetings

A Board meeting of SWL Ltd. initially had a valid quorum with 5 out of 7 directors participating (2 in person, 3 via video conference). Midway, 2 directors left physically and 1 via VC also dropped. How does this affect the meeting's validity for subsequent business?

AThe meeting remains valid as quorum was present at the start.
BSubsequent business is valid if passed by the majority of remaining directors.
CSubsequent business is not validly transacted as quorum must be present throughout the meeting.
DThe entire meeting becomes invalid retrospectively.
Q24Board Meetings

If there is a failure to give proper notice for a Board meeting as required by the Companies Act, 2013, what is the penalty imposable on the officer of the company whose duty it was to give such notice?

AA fine of 1,000 for each default.
BA fine of 5,000 for each default.
CA fine of 25,000.
DA fine of 1,00,000.
Board Minutes 1 question
Q25Board Minutes

After draft minutes of a Board meeting are circulated to all directors (typically within 15 days), within what period should the directors usually provide their comments, if any, on the draft minutes?

AWithin 3 days of circulation.
BWithin 7 days of circulation.
CWithin 10 days of circulation.
DWithin 15 days of circulation.
Board Quorum 1 question
Q26Board Quorum

What is the quorum requirement for a Board Meeting of a top 2000 listed entity in India, as per SEBI (LODR) Regulations?

AOne-third of its total strength or two directors, whichever is higher.
BOne-half of its total strength or three directors, whichever is higher, including one executive director.
COne-third of its total strength or three directors, whichever is higher, and this must include at least one independent director.
DTwo directors, of which at least one must be an independent director.
Body Corporate 1 question
Q27Body Corporate

Which of the following entities is generally NOT included within the definition of a "body corporate" or "corporation" under section 2(11) of the Companies Act, 2013?

AA company incorporated outside India.
BA co-operative society registered under any law relating to co-operative societies.
CA public financial institution.
DA limited liability partnership.
Books Of Account 1 question
Q28Books Of Account

For how long must the books of account of every company relating to a period of not less than eight financial years immediately preceding a financial year be preserved in good order?

AFor at least 5 financial years.
BFor at least 8 financial years.
CFor at least 10 financial years.
DFor at least 12 financial years.
CSR 1 question
Q29CSR

A company reports a net worth of Rs. 450 crores, turnover of Rs. 800 crores, and a net profit of Rs. 3 crores in the immediately preceding financial year. Are the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) provisions under section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, applicable to this company?

ANo, because its net profit is less than Rs. 5 crores.
BYes, because its net worth exceeds Rs. 500 crores.
CYes, because its turnover exceeds Rs. 1000 crores.
DNo, CSR is only applicable if all three thresholds (net worth, turnover, and net profit) are met.
CSR Committee 1 question
Q30CSR Committee

If a company is required to constitute a Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Committee, what is the minimum number of directors this committee must generally have?

ATwo directors.
BThree directors, with at least one being an independent director if applicable.
CFour directors, with at least two being independent directors.
DFive directors.
CSR Compliance 1 question
Q31CSR Compliance

In the context of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) under section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, if a company has unspent CSR amount for a financial year related to an "ongoing project," where must this unspent amount be transferred by the company?

ATo the Prime Minister's National Relief Fund within 6 months from the end of the FY.
BTo a special account called "Unspent Corporate Social Responsibility Account" opened by the company in a scheduled bank, within 30 days from end of FY.
CIt can be carried forward to the next financial year as part of the CSR budget without any specific transfer.
DTo any fund specified in Schedule VII of the Act within 45 days from the end of the FY.
Casual Vacancy 1 question
Q32Casual Vacancy

What is the typical timeframe within which a casual vacancy in the office of a director (including a managing director, if the vacancy is filled by the Board) must be subsequently approved by the members in a general meeting?

AWithin 3 months from the Board's appointment.
BAt the immediate next general meeting.
CWithin 1 year from the Board's appointment.
DNo subsequent member approval is needed if filled by the Board.
Charitable Contributions 1 question
Q33Charitable Contributions

If a company's Board wishes to contribute ₹4,80,000 to a charitable trust, and this amount exceeds 5% of the company's average net profits of the three immediately preceding financial years, what approval is required?

AOnly Board resolution is sufficient.
BBoard resolution and approval from the Audit Committee.
CBoard resolution and an Ordinary Resolution from shareholders.
DOnly a Special Resolution from shareholders.
Company Conversion 1 question
Q34Company Conversion

Which authority is primarily empowered to grant approval for the conversion of a public company into a private company under the Companies Act, 2013?

ARegistrar of Companies (ROC)
BRegional Director (RD) / Central
CNational Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
DSecurities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), if listed.
Company Deposits 1 question
Q35Company Deposits

Can a private company accept deposits from its members without issuing a circular or statement in lieu of circular to them?

AYes, private companies are exempt from all deposit rules concerning members.
BNo, even for member deposits, a circular or statement with specified details must be issued.
COnly if the amount of deposit from each member is less than Rs. 1 lakh.
DOnly if the deposits are unsecured and for a period less than 6 months.
Company Law 33 questions
Q36Company Law

Secretarial audit is mandatory for an unlisted public company if its outstanding loans or borrowings from banks or public financial institutions are:

A₹50 crore or more
B₹75 crore or more
C₹100 crore or more
D₹250 crore or more
Q37Company Law

Can a director appointed under the principle of proportional representation (Section 163) be removed by the company through an ordinary resolution passed by its members?

AYes, if the majority of members vote for removal.
BYes, but only after giving the director a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
CNo, such directors cannot be removed by an ordinary resolution under Section 169.
DNo, unless the director has served less than one year and the Articles permit it.
Q38Company Law

What is the maximum amount a company's Board can contribute to bona fide charitable funds in any financial year without needing an ordinary resolution from shareholders?

A2% of the company's net worth.
B5% of its net profit for that financial year.
C5% of its average net profits for the three immediately preceding financial years.
D7.5% of its paid-up share capital.
Q39Company Law

Which individual below is most likely to be considered eligible for registration as a Registered Valuer, assuming all other specific qualification criteria are met?

AA person recently imprisoned for 7 months for an economic offence.
BA person convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude.
CA person who was imprisoned for 3 months for a minor offence not involving moral turpitude.
DA person currently an undischarged bankrupt.
Q40Company Law

According to the Companies Act, 2013, an individual who intends to be appointed as a director of a company must apply for and obtain which unique identifier?

APermanent Account Number (PAN)
BDirector Authorisation Number (DAN)
CDirector Identification Number (DIN)
DCorporate Identity Number (CIN)
Q41Company Law

A company is considering a buy-back of its equity shares. What is one of the primary conditions regarding the debt-equity ratio that the company must typically ensure after such a buy-back?

AThe debt-equity ratio must not be less than 1:1.
BThe debt-equity ratio (secured & unsecured debt to paid-up capital & free reserves) must not be more than 2:1.
CThe debt-equity ratio must be exactly 1:2.
DThere is no specific post buy-back debt-equity ratio requirement.
Q42Company Law

If a company has issued redeemable preference shares, what is the maximum period within which such shares must generally be redeemed from the date of their issue?

A10 years
B15 years
C20 years
D30 years
Q43Company Law

If a public company has more than 1000 members but not more than 5000 members, what is the quorum required for a general meeting, assuming the Articles of Association do not provide for a larger number?

A5 members personally present.
B10 members personally present.
C15 members personally present.
D30 members personally present.
Q44Company Law

A company wishes to issue "sweat equity shares". To whom can such shares generally be issued?

ATo its promoters for their initial contribution.
BTo its directors or employees, at a discount or for consideration other than cash, for their value addition.
CTo any investor willing to buy shares at a premium.
DOnly to existing shareholders on a rights basis.
Q45Company Law

If a company has an "Audit Committee", which of the following functions is generally NOT considered a primary responsibility of this committee?

ARecommending the appointment and remuneration of the statutory auditors.
BReviewing the company's annual financial statements before submission to the Board.
CApproving all related party transactions.
DFormulating the company's dividend distribution policy.
Q46Company Law

What is the maximum amount of interim dividend that the Board of Directors can declare during any financial year?

AUp to 50% of the average net profits of the company for the three immediately preceding financial years.
BUp to the amount of profits earned till the quarter preceding the date of declaration of interim dividend.
CThere is no specific upper limit prescribed for the amount of interim dividend, provided it is declared out of surplus in P&L and/or profits of FY till preceding quarter, after providing for depreciation.
DNot exceeding the amount of final dividend declared in the previous year.
Q47Company Law

What is the primary objective of Section 42 of the Companies Act, 2013, which deals with "Offer or invitation for subscription of securities on private placement"?

ATo regulate public issues of securities by listed companies.
BTo lay down the procedure for rights issues by existing companies.
CTo provide a framework for companies to raise capital from a select group of persons without a public offer.
DTo govern the issue of bonus shares to existing shareholders.
Q48Company Law

If a company convenes a general meeting with a notice period shorter than the statutorily required 21 clear days, under what condition can such a shorter notice be considered valid for an AGM?

AIf consented to by members holding not less than 51% of the total voting power.
BIf consented to by members holding not less than 75% of the total voting power.
CIf consented to by members holding not less than 95% of the number of members entitled to vote thereat.
DShorter notice is never valid for an AGM.
Q49Company Law

What does "consolidation of shares" by a company generally involve?

AReducing the number of shares and correspondingly increasing the nominal value of each share.
BIncreasing the number of shares and correspondingly reducing the nominal value of each share.
CConverting partly paid-up shares into fully paid-up shares.
DIssuing new shares to existing shareholders free of cost.
Q50Company Law

For an individual to be eligible for registration as a Registered Valuer (RV), within what period preceding the date of making an application for registration must they have passed the valuation examination?

AWithin 1 year.
BWithin 2 years.
CWithin 3 years.
DWithin 5 years.
Q51Company Law

What is a primary duty of a Registered Valuer (RV) while conducting a valuation under the Companies Act, 2013, apart from being impartial and independent?

ATo ensure the valuation benefits the majority shareholders.
BTo provide the lowest possible valuation to minimize tax implications.
CTo exercise due diligence, make fair calculations, and apply recognised valuation approaches.
DTo consult with the company's statutory auditor before finalizing the report.
Q52Company Law

If the Registrar of Companies (ROC), after an inquiry under section 206, is satisfied with the information or explanation provided by the company on a matter, what is the typical course of action by the ROC regarding that specific point of inquiry?

AThe ROC must still refer the matter to the Central Government.
BThe ROC will close the inquiry on that point and no further action is typically taken on it based on that specific information.
CThe ROC must order a special audit of the company.
DThe ROC will issue a warning letter to the company.
Q53Company Law

Upon receipt of a copy of a winding-up order or an order appointing a provisional liquidator, within what period must the petitioner and the company typically file a certified copy of such order with the Registrar of Companies (ROC)?

AWithin 7 days from the date of the order.
BWithin 15 days from the date of the order.
CWithin 30 days from the date of the order.
DWithin 60 days from the date of the order.
Q54Company Law

For a company that is required to comply with Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS), what is the primary statement among the financial statements that presents the assets, liabilities, and equity of the company at a specific point in time?

AStatement of Profit and Loss.
BCash Flow Statement.
CBalance Sheet.
DStatement of Changes in Equity.
Q55Company Law

If a resolution is passed at an adjourned meeting of a company, from which date is the resolution treated as having been passed?

AFrom the date of the original scheduled meeting.
BFrom the date on which the adjourned meeting is actually held.
CFrom the date the notice of adjournment was issued.
DFrom the date the minutes of the adjourned meeting are signed.
Q56Company Law

If a director of a company gives a notice of their resignation to the company, from which date does the resignation typically take effect?

AFrom the date the company files notice of resignation with the ROC.
BFrom the date specified by the director in the notice, or if no date is specified, from the date it is received by the company.
COnly after the resignation is accepted by the Board of Directors.
DFrom the date of the next general meeting of the company.
Q57Company Law

Which of the following is NOT a mandatory component of the "Board's Report" for a One Person Company (OPC) or a small company as per the abridged requirements?

ADetails of material changes affecting financial position between end of FY and date of report.
BA statement on declaration given by independent directors (if any).
CExplanations or comments on every qualification, reservation or adverse remark by the auditor.
DDetails regarding adequacy of internal financial controls with reference to Financial Statements.
Q58Company Law

What is the primary purpose of "Consolidation of Financial Statements" for a company that has one or more subsidiaries, associates, or joint ventures?

ATo simplify the tax filing process for the group.
BTo present the financial position and performance of the parent company and its group entities as a single economic entity.
CTo allow the parent company to directly control the funds of its subsidiaries.
DTo determine the managerial remuneration for the directors of the subsidiary companies.
Q59Company Law

What is the maximum term for which an Independent Director (ID) can hold office in a single tenure as per the Companies Act, 2013?

AThree years.
BFour years.
CFive years.
DSeven years.
Q60Company Law

If a company wants to change its name, which specific approvals are generally required under the Companies Act, 2013?

AOnly a Board resolution.
BOnly an ordinary resolution of members.
CA special resolution of members and approval of the Central Government (ROC).
DA special resolution of members and approval from NCLT.
Q61Company Law

What is the primary purpose of the "Investor Education and Protection Fund" (IEPF) established under the Companies Act, 2013?

ATo provide loans to small investors for investing in the stock market.
BTo make investments on behalf of the Central Government.
CTo credit unclaimed or unpaid amounts (like dividends, matured deposits/debentures, application money) and promote investor awareness.
DTo fund the operations of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Q62Company Law

If a person is appointed as a Small Shareholder Director (SSD) in a listed company, what is their typical tenure of office?

AFor a period of 5 years, renewable for another 5 years.
BUp to a maximum period of 3 consecutive years, and they are not eligible for reappointment as SSD in that company.
CFor a period as decided by the Board, not exceeding 2 years.
DThey hold office until the next Annual General Meeting and are eligible for re-election.
Q63Company Law

A private company has an annual turnover of Rs. 45 crores and borrowings from banks of Rs. 20 crores. Is it mandatorily required to prepare a Cash Flow Statement as part of its financial statements?

AYes, all private companies must prepare a Cash Flow Statement.
BNo, private companies are always exempt from preparing a Cash Flow Statement.
CNo, unless it is a subsidiary of a public company.
DNo, because its turnover is less than Rs. 50 crores and borrowings less than Rs. 25 crores (exemptions often apply to small/certain pvt cos).
Q64Company Law

If a company fails to pay declared dividends to a shareholder within 30 days of declaration, who is liable for interest on the unpaid amount, and at what rate?

AOnly the company is liable, at 12% p.a.
BOnly the directors knowingly party to default are liable, at 18% p.a.
CBoth the company and every director knowingly party to default are liable for interest at 18% p.a.
DNo interest is payable, but a penalty applies.
Q65Company Law

Which of the following is typically NOT a ground on which the Central Government can order an investigation into the affairs of a company by appointing inspectors?

AOn a report by the Registrar or inspector under section 208.
BOn intimation of a special resolution passed by a company that its affairs ought to be investigated.
CIf the company has been making consistent losses for five years.
DIn public interest.
Q66Company Law

If a company has its name struck off from the Register of Companies by the ROC under section 248, what happens to the liability, if any, of every director, manager, or other officer who was exercising any power of management, and of every member?

AAll liabilities are extinguished upon strike-off.
BTheir liability continues and may be enforced as if the company had not been dissolved.
COnly the liability of members continues.
DOnly the liability of directors continues.
Q67Company Law

What is the primary purpose of Section 237 of the Companies Act, 2013, concerning the power of the Central Government to provide for the amalgamation of companies?

ATo facilitate voluntary mergers approved by shareholders.
BTo allow for fast-track mergers of small companies.
CTo empower the Central Government to order amalgamation of companies in public interest.
DTo regulate cross-border mergers.
Q68Company Law

If a company registered under Section 8 (for charitable objects, etc.) wants to alter the provisions of its memorandum or articles, whose approval is required in addition to any member resolutions?

AOnly the Registrar of Companies.
BOnly the National Company Law Tribunal.
CThe Central Government (power often delegated to ROC or RD).
DNo external approval is needed beyond member resolution.
Company Limited By Guarantee 1 question
Q69Company Limited By Guarantee

In a company limited by guarantee and not having a share capital, what is the primary liability of its members in the event of winding up?

ATo contribute an unlimited amount to meet the company's debts.
BTo contribute the amount undertaken by them to the assets of the company as specified in the Memorandum, in the event of winding up.
CTo contribute an amount equal to one year's subscription fee.
DMembers have no liability as there is no share capital.
Company Liquidation 1 question
Q70Company Liquidation

Is a company under liquidation required to file its Annual Return (Form MGT-7) with the Registrar of Companies?

AYes, until the final dissolution order is passed.
BYes, but only if the liquidation process exceeds one year.
CNo, generally the requirement to file Annual Return ceases once a company goes into liquidation and a liquidator is appointed.
DOnly if directed by the NCLT.
Company Strike Off 1 question
Q71Company Strike Off

If a company fails to file its Annual Return for a continuous period of how many years, can the ROC initiate action for striking off the company's name, assuming it is not carrying on any business or operation?

AOne year
BTwo years
CThree years
DFive years
Compromise Arrangement 4 questions
Q72Compromise Arrangement

Under a scheme of compromise or arrangement (Section 230), within how many days must a certified copy of the Tribunal's order be filed with the Registrar of Companies (ROC)?

A15 days from the date of the order.
B30 days from the date of the order.
C45 days from the date of the order.
D60 days from the date of the order.
Q73Compromise Arrangement

Who can raise an objection to a proposed scheme of compromise or arrangement before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)?

AAny single shareholder, irrespective of their shareholding.
BCreditors representing at least 1% of the total outstanding debt.
CMembers holding not less than ten percent of the shareholding, or creditors representing not less than five percent of the total outstanding debt.
DOnly regulatory authorities like SEBI or ROC.
Q74Compromise Arrangement

In a scheme of compromise or arrangement under the Companies Act, 2013, who typically orders the convening of meetings of creditors and/or members to approve the scheme?

AThe Registrar of Companies (ROC).
BThe Board of Directors of the company.
CThe National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
DThe Central Government.
Q75Compromise Arrangement

Under section 230, what is the minimum consent by value of creditors required for a company to apply to the NCLT to dispense with the calling of a meeting of creditors for approving a scheme of compromise or arrangement?

A75% in value of creditors.
BMajority in number representing three-fourths in value of creditors.
C90% in value of creditors.
DUnanimous consent of all creditors.
DIN 2 questions
Q76DIN

What is the penalty if an individual acts as a director without obtaining a Director Identification Number (DIN) or furnishes a false DIN?

AFine up to ₹10,000 only.
BFine up to ₹50,000, and for continuing offence, ₹500 per day.
CImprisonment up to 6 months.
DFine of ₹1,00,000 and imprisonment up to 1 year.
Q77DIN

Upon receiving a DIN (Director Identification Number), within what period must an individual intimate their DIN to all companies where they are a director?

AWithin 7 days of receipt of DIN.
BWithin 15 days of receipt of DIN.
CWithin 30 days of receipt of DIN.
DWithin 60 days of receipt of DIN.
DRR 1 question
Q78DRR

What is the primary purpose of appointing a "Debenture Redemption Reserve" (DRR) by a company issuing debentures?

ATo provide security for the debenture holders against company assets.
BTo ensure funds are available for the redemption of debentures on their maturity.
CTo meet the annual interest payment obligations on debentures.
DTo allow for early conversion of debentures into equity shares.
Debenture Trustee 1 question
Q79Debenture Trustee

In which of the following circumstances is a company generally required to appoint a Debenture Trustee before issuing a prospectus or making an offer/invitation to the public or its members exceeding five hundred for the subscription of its debentures?

AFor all types of debenture issues, irrespective of the number of offerees.
BOnly when debentures are secured by a charge on the company's assets.
CWhen the offer/invitation is made to more than 500 persons for subscription.
DOnly when debentures are listed on a recognized stock exchange.
Debentures 1 question
Q80Debentures

A company issues debentures that are explicitly stated to be "unsecured" and also "non- convertible." Which of the following is true about these debentures?

AThey must be redeemable within 5 years from the date of issue.
BThey create a charge on the company's assets, ranking below secured debentures.
CThey do not create any charge on the assets of the company.
DThey can be converted into equity shares at the option of the company.
Debt Restructuring 1 question
Q81Debt Restructuring

For a corporate debt restructuring scheme to be approved, what is the minimum consent required from the secured creditors by value?

A50% of secured creditors
B66% of secured creditors
C75% of secured creditors
DUnanimous consent of all secured creditors
Dematerialization 1 question
Q82Dematerialization

For which type of company is it generally mandatory to issue and hold its shares only in dematerialized form?

AAll private limited companies.
BAll public limited companies.
CEvery unlisted public company.
DEvery private company having more than 50 members.
Deposits Default 1 question
Q83Deposits Default

If a company defaults in repayment of deposits accepted from the public or interest thereon, for how long is it generally barred from making any further invitation, acceptance or renewal of deposits?

AFor 1 year from the date of making good the default.
BFor 3 years from the date of making good the default.
CFor 5 years from the date of making good the default.
DUntil the default is made good and a penalty is paid to ROC.
Deposits Penalty 1 question
Q84Deposits Penalty

What is the maximum penalty that can generally be imposed on a company if it fails to comply with the provisions related to the acceptance or renewal of deposits from the public or its members under the Companies Act, 2013?

ARs. 50 lakhs.
BRs. 1 crore or twice the amount of deposits accepted, whichever is lower.
CNot less than Rs. 1 crore but which may extend to Rs. 10 crores.
D10% of the total deposits accepted by the company.
Director Absence 1 question
Q85Director Absence

A director of ABC Ltd. absented himself from all Board meetings held during a continuous period of twelve months, without seeking any leave of absence from the Board. What is the primary consequence for the director?

AA monetary penalty will be imposed by the ROC.
BThe director is disqualified from being appointed in any other company for 5 years.
CThe office of the director becomes vacant.
DThe director can continue if the Board ratifies his absence later.
Director Appointment 2 questions
Q86Director Appointment

If a resolution for the appointment of multiple directors by a single vote is passed at a general meeting in contravention of section 162 of the Companies Act, 2013 (i.e., without the prior unanimous consent for such a single motion), what is the validity of such a resolution?

AValid if ratified by the Board subsequently.
BVoidable at the option of any member present.
CValid, but the directors appointed will hold office only until the next AGM.
DVoid.
Q87Director Appointment

If a proposal to appoint three directors by a single resolution is put to vote, and 90% of members present vote in favour while the remaining 10% abstain from voting, is the appointment valid under section 162?

ANo, it requires unanimous affirmative votes from all members present.
BNo, any abstention makes the single resolution for multiple directors invalid.
CYes, as long as no vote was cast against the proposal for a single resolution, abstentions don't invalidate it.
DYes, a 90% majority is sufficient for such appointments.
Director Disqualification 7 questions
Q88Director Disqualification

Mr. X, an MD of XYZ Ltd., was found to have mismanaged the company's affairs and was subsequently removed. If the Central Government exercises its power regarding Mr. X's future employment, what can it typically permit?

ATo work in any company, including XYZ Ltd. again after a cooling period.
BTo work in any company except XYZ Ltd. for a specified period.
CTo work anywhere without any restrictions.
DTo not hold any directorial position in any company for 5 years, but can be an employee.
Q89Director Disqualification

Mr. X is a director in Company A (compliant) and Company B (non-compliant). Company B fails to file its financial statements for three consecutive financial years, leading to Mr. X's disqualification under section 164(2)(a). Does Mr. X have to vacate his office as director in the compliant Company A due to this disqualification?

ANo, the disqualification only prevents new appointments for 5 years.
BNo, he only has to vacate office in the defaulting Company B.
CYes, he must vacate his office in all companies, including the compliant Company A.
DYes, but only if Company A is a subsidiary of Company B.
Q90Director Disqualification

If a person is declared by the NCLT under section 242(4A) as not a fit and proper person to hold the office of director, can the Central Government appoint this person again as a director in the same company within five years of the NCLT order?

AYes, the Central Government has overriding powers.
BNo, the disqualification is absolute for five years.
COnly if the company passes a unanimous resolution requesting it.
DNo, not without seeking and obtaining the leave (permission) of the NCLT.
Q91Director Disqualification

If a company's Articles of Association (AoA) prescribe certain additional grounds for disqualification of a director, beyond those specified in section 164 of the Companies Act, 2013, and a director incurs such an AoA-specified disqualification, what is the consequence?

AThe director need not vacate office as AoA cannot override the Act.
BThe director must vacate office only if shareholders pass a resolution to that effect.
CThe director has to vacate his office as he has incurred a disqualification specified in the AoA.
DThe AoA provision is invalid and unenforceable.
Q92Director Disqualification

If a director of Company X Ltd. is removed by an NCLT order declaring them "not fit and proper," what is the general consequence for their directorships in other companies (e.g., Y Ltd., Z Ltd.)?

ANo consequence for directorships in other companies.
BThey must resign from all other directorships within 30 days.
CThey are terminated from their directorships in all companies for a period of 5 years from the date of the NCLT order.
DThey can continue in other companies if Y Ltd. and Z Ltd. pass a resolution supporting their continuation.
Q93Director Disqualification

If a director is disqualified under section 164(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, due to defaults in Company A (where they are a director), what is the consequence for their directorship in Company B (an unrelated, compliant company)?

ANo consequence for Company B, as the default is in Company A.
BThey are only barred from being re-appointed in Company A.
CThey shall not be eligible to be re-appointed as a director of Company A or appointed in other company for 5 years from default date.
DThey must immediately resign from Company B if Company B's articles state so.
Q94Director Disqualification

If a company fails to file its financial statements with the ROC for three consecutive financial years, what is a significant direct consequence for its directors under the Companies Act, 2013?

AThey are liable for immediate imprisonment.
BThey may become disqualified from being appointed or re-appointed as a director in any company for a period of five years.
CThe company will be automatically struck off by the ROC.
DThey must pay a penalty equal to their last drawn remuneration.
Director Interest 1 question
Q95Director Interest

Is a private company required to maintain the register of contracts or arrangements in which directors are interested (as per section 189), even if it has fully complied with disclosures in its Annual Report and Financial Statements?

ANo, compliance with Annual Report and Financial Statement disclosures exempts it.
BYes, maintaining this register is mandatory irrespective of other disclosures.
COnly if its paid-up share capital exceeds a certain threshold.
DOnly if it is a subsidiary of a public company.
Director Reappointment 1 question
Q96Director Reappointment

If the Central Government permits a director, previously removed by the NCLT as "not fit and proper" from Company X, to hold office again before the expiry of the usual 5-year bar, does this permission apply only to Company X or to any company?

AOnly to Company X.
BTo any company except Company X and its group companies.
CTo any company, including Company X, as per the terms of the permission.
DOnly to unlisted private companies.
Director Removal 1 question
Q97Director Removal

A director is removed by the NCLT under section 242 for being "not a fit and proper person". Can this director continue to participate in Board meetings of another company where they are also a director and which is not involved in the NCLT proceedings?

ANo, the NCLT order automatically debars them from all directorships.
BYes, the removal is specific to the company under the NCLT order, unless the order states otherwise for other companies or SFIO action implies broader bar.
COnly with prior permission from the Central Government.
DOnly if the other company is a private limited company.
Director Removal Compensation 1 question
Q98Director Removal Compensation

If a director is removed by the NCLT under section 242 (e.g., for being unfit due to oppression/mismanagement), and the order also specifies termination from all companies, are they generally entitled to claim compensation for loss of office from any of these companies, even if their employment agreement provided for it?

AYes, they can claim contractual compensation.
BNo, the Tribunal's order for removal due to such reasons typically overrides any contractual claim for compensation for loss of office.
COnly if the NCLT order specifically allows for compensation.
DYes, but only from companies where they were not found to be at fault.
Director Rotation 1 question
Q99Director Rotation

A company has 20 directors, including 2 appointed by a financial institution (nominee directors not liable to retire by rotation). How many directors are liable to retire by rotation at the AGM?

A4 directors
B6 directors
C12 directors
D18 directors
Director Term 1 question
Q100Director Term

When a new director is appointed to fill a vacancy created by the removal of a director before the expiry of their term, for how long will such a newly appointed director typically hold office?

AFor a fresh term of three years from their appointment.
BUntil the next Annual General Meeting only.
CFor the remaining period for which the removed director would have held office had they not been removed.
DFor a period as decided by the Board of Directors, not exceeding one year.
Directorship Limits 1 question
Q101Directorship Limits

What is the maximum number of directorships (including alternate directorships) an individual can hold across all types of companies (public, private, OPC, etc.) at the same time as per the Companies Act, 2013?

A10 directorships
B15 directorships
C20 directorships
D25 directorships
Dividend Payment 1 question
Q102Dividend Payment

If a company declares a dividend but fails to pay it or post the dividend warrants within 30 days from the date of declaration, what is the interest liability on the company for the period of default?

A6% per annum.
B12% per annum.
C18% per annum.
D24% per annum.
Donation Modes 1 question
Q103Donation Modes

A company's Articles state it cannot donate more than Rs. 5 lakhs to the National Defence Fund (NDF) without shareholder approval. Its Articles are silent on donations to other charitable trusts. If the company donates Rs. 10 lakhs to the NDF and Rs. 3 lakhs to a charitable trust (within Board's general power limits u/s 181), through which modes can these donations be validly made?

ANDF: Any mode; Charitable: Only cheque/draft.
BBoth must be by account payee cheque/draft or ECS only.
CNDF: Any banking channel; Charitable: Any banking channel.
DNDF: Restricted by Articles; Charitable: Any banking channel if within Board limits.
Donations 1 question
Q104Donations

According to the Companies Act, 2013, through which primary mode should a company make donations to the National Defence Fund or bona fide charitable funds?

AOnly through an account payee cheque.
BOnly through electronic clearing systems.
CThrough banking channels (e.g., cheque, draft, ECS).
DCash donations up to Rs. 10,000 are allowed.
Dormant Company 7 questions
Q105Dormant Company

What is the minimum number of directors required in a public company that has obtained the status of a dormant company?

AOne director
BTwo directors
CThree directors
DFive directors
Q106Dormant Company

If a company obtains dormant company status on September 30, 2020, and remains dormant continuously, by what date may the Registrar of Companies consider striking its name off the register if no action is taken by the company?

ASeptember 30, 2023
BSeptember 30, 2024
CSeptember 30, 2025
DSeptember 30, 2027
Q107Dormant Company

A company, previously declared dormant, accepts an advance payment for a supply contract it intends to fulfill in the near future. Does this transaction affect its dormant status?

ANo, advance payments for future work do not count as significant transactions.
BNo, as long as the main business operations have not commenced.
CYes, this would likely be considered a significant accounting transaction (SAT), making it an active company.
DYes, but only if the advance exceeds 10% of its net worth.
Q108Dormant Company

If a company has been a dormant company for five consecutive financial years, what action may the Registrar of Companies (ROC) initiate?

AAutomatically classify it as a defunct company.
BOrder the company to resume active business operations within six months.
CIssue a notice to strike off the company's name from the register of dormant companies.
DImpose a significant monetary penalty for prolonged dormancy.
Q109Dormant Company

A company has been a dormant company for the past four years. Can it now apply to the ROC for changing its status from dormant to active?

ANo, once dormant for more than 2 years, it must apply for striking off.
BNo, it can only become active if it undertakes a significant accounting transaction automatically.
CYes, a dormant company can apply to the ROC in the prescribed form for change of its status to an active company at any time.
DOnly after completing 5 full years as a dormant company.
Q110Dormant Company

If an inactive company applies to the ROC for obtaining the status of a "Dormant Company" and the application is approved, what is its new status?

AIt remains an inactive company but with fewer compliance burdens.
BIt becomes a Dormant Company.
CIt is classified as a "company under suspension".
DIt is struck off from the Register of Companies.
Q111Dormant Company

An "inactive company" applies to the Registrar of Companies (ROC) for obtaining the status of a "Dormant Company". If the ROC approves the application, what is the resultant status of the company?

AIt remains an inactive company with ROC's acknowledgement.
BIt is classified as a "Company with Restricted Operations".
CIt becomes a "Dormant Company".
DIt is temporarily struck off the Register of Companies.
EGM 1 question
Q112EGM

An Extraordinary General Meeting (EGM) of a public company can be called by:

AAny single director of the company.
BThe statutory auditors of the company if accounts are not finalized.
CThe Board of Directors, or by members holding not less than one-tenth of the paid-up share capital carrying voting rights.
DOnly the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
Effective Capital 1 question
Q113Effective Capital

A company's financial details are: Paid-up Share Capital Rs. 40 crore, Debenture Redemption Reserve Rs. 40 crore, Revaluation Reserve Rs. 20 crore, Profit and Loss Account (debit balance) Rs. 20 crore. What is its effective capital for managerial remuneration?

ARs. 40 crore
BRs. 60 crore
CRs. 80 crore
DRs. 100 crore
Employee Protection 2 questions
Q114Employee Protection

If an investigation into a company's affairs is pending before the Tribunal, and the company removes an employee without obtaining the prior permission of the Tribunal, what is the likely validity of such a removal?

AValid, as employee removal is a managerial prerogative.
BValid, if the employee was found guilty of misconduct in an internal inquiry.
CNot valid, as prior permission from the Tribunal is required during pending investigation.
DVoidable, only if the employee challenges it within 30 days.
Q115Employee Protection

A company intends to terminate the services of an employee during the pendency of an investigation against the company by an inspector appointed by the Central Government. The company applies to the NCLT for approval under section 218, and no objections are received by the NCLT from any party within 30 days. Can the company proceed with the proposed termination?

ANo, an explicit approval order from NCLT is still required.
BYes, if no objection is received by NCLT within 30 days of its notice, the company can proceed with the action.
CNo, termination is prohibited until the investigation is fully complete.
DYes, but only if the employee is not a Key Managerial Personnel.
FCRA 2 questions
Q116FCRA

What is the typical validity period of a Certificate of Registration (COR) granted to an association under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, before it requires renewal?

A3 years from the date of issue.
B5 years from the date of issue.
C7 years from the date of issue.
D10 years from the date of issue.
Q117FCRA

If an application for renewal of FCRA registration is made within the stipulated time but is not disposed of by the Central Government, what is the status of the existing registration?

AIt is deemed to be automatically renewed for 5 years.
BIt is deemed to have expired on the original expiry date.
CIt is deemed to be valid until the date on which the renewal application is disposed of.
DIt is deemed to be suspended pending renewal.
FCRA Account 1 question
Q118FCRA Account

Can a religious trust in India receive donations directly from a foreign source into its regular savings bank account without having a designated FCRA account?

AYes, if the donation is below Rs. 1 lakh.
BYes, if the foreign donor is an individual of Indian origin (NRI/OCI).
CNo, trusts must receive foreign contributions only into their designated FCRA account.
DOnly if the trust has obtained prior permission for that specific donation.
FCRA Appeals 1 question
Q119FCRA Appeals

If a person is aggrieved by an order of confiscation of foreign contribution (where the value exceeds Rs. 10 lakhs) made by an adjudicating authority under FCRA, to which authority can they appeal and within what time limit?

ATo the Central Government within 30 days.
BTo the High Court within 60 days.
CTo the Supreme Court within 90 days.
DTo the FCRA Tribunal within 45 days.
FCRA Assets 2 questions
Q120FCRA Assets

If an association registered under FCRA has its Certificate of Registration (COR) surrendered or cancelled, and the Central Government directs a banking authority regarding the utilisation or disposal of the foreign contribution assets, under what primary condition can the banking authority proceed with such utilisation or disposal?

AOnly after obtaining a court order.
BIf it is considered necessary in the public interest and the CG so directs, especially if adequate funds are not available for the original activity.
COnly if the association gives its written consent.
DAfter a waiting period of one year from surrender/cancellation.
Q121FCRA Assets

An Indian entity (Best Trust), whose FCRA registration was cancelled, has assets created out of foreign contributions. If directed by the Central Government in the public interest, what can a banking authority be required to do with these assets if adequate funds are not available for the original activity?

ATransfer the assets to the Investor Education and Protection Fund.
BAuction the assets and credit proceeds to the Consolidated Fund of India.
CUtilize the foreign contribution or dispose of the assets created out of it as the Central Government may direct for permissible activities.
DFreeze the assets indefinitely.
FCRA Cancellation 1 question
Q122FCRA Cancellation

Under FCRA, if an organization's certificate of registration is cancelled, what is the general implication for any unutilized foreign contribution lying in its FCRA account or assets created out of it?

AThe organization can freely use the unutilized amount for any charitable purpose.
BThe unutilized amount automatically escheats to the Central Government.
CThe unutilized FC and assets shall vest with the banking authority or other authority as directed by Central Government, pending further orders.
DThe organization must transfer the amount to another FCRA registered entity within 30 days.
FCRA Compliance 2 questions
Q123FCRA Compliance

If an association registered under FCRA receives an emergent medical aid from a foreign source in excess of Rs. 1 lakh (e.g., medical equipment), within what period must it typically intimate the Central Government?

AWithin 7 days of receipt.
BWithin 15 days of receipt.
CWithin 1 month (30 days) of receipt.
DWithin 45 days of receipt.
Q124FCRA Compliance

A person receives Rs. 25 lakhs as foreign contribution (FC) directly into their designated FCRA bank account with SBI, New Delhi. They later transfer Rs. 10 lakhs from this FCRA account to another local savings account in their name for utilization. Separately, they receive Rs. 5 lakhs as FC directly into a non-FCRA savings account with Canara Bank. Which transaction violates FCRA provisions?

ATransferring Rs. 10 lakhs from FCRA account to local savings account.
BReceiving Rs. 5 lakhs FC directly into the non-FCRA Canara Bank account.
CReceiving Rs. 25 lakhs in the SBI FCRA account.
DNone of these transactions violate FCRA if properly declared.
FCRA Contributions 6 questions
Q125FCRA Contributions

If a person receives foreign contribution from their relatives (as defined under FCRA) exceeding Rs. 10 lakhs in a financial year, within what period and in which form must they typically inform the Central Government?

AWithin 1 month, in Form FC-Alert.
BWithin 3 months from receipt of such contribution, in Form FC-1.
CWithin 6 months, in Form FC-3.
DNo intimation required if received from relatives.
Q126FCRA Contributions

Is a scholarship received by a Person Resident in India (PRI) directly from a foreign university for pursuing studies abroad considered a "foreign contribution" under the FCRA, 2010, requiring compliance?

ANo, educational scholarships are always exempt.
BYes, it is generally considered a foreign contribution unless specifically exempted by rules.
COnly if the scholarship amount exceeds Rs. 10 lakhs per annum.
DNo, if the university is a government-recognized institution in its home country.
Q127FCRA Contributions

Is a donation of Rs. 10 lakhs made by an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) cardholder (who is not an Indian citizen) to an educational institute in India, where they were an alumnus, considered a "foreign contribution" under FCRA?

ANo, OCI cardholders are treated as Indian residents for donations.
BYes, OCI cardholders (if not Indian citizens) are considered foreign sources, and such a donation is foreign contribution.
COnly if the educational institute is not a government institution.
DOnly if the OCI cardholder is currently residing outside India.
Q128FCRA Contributions

Mr. Arjun, an Indian citizen residing in the USA for 5 years, transfers USD 1000 to his NRI friend Mr. Sanjay in Singapore, asking him to donate it to an Indian NGO. Mr. Sanjay donates this amount from his personal savings (presumably from his NRE/NRO account) to the NGO. How is this donation typically viewed under FCRA by the NGO?

AAs a foreign contribution because the original source (Mr. Arjun) is a non-resident for FEMA/FCRA.
BNot a foreign contribution if Mr. Sanjay (NRI) donates from his NRO account in India from his Indian income.
CAs a foreign contribution if Mr. Sanjay donates from his NRE account.
DNot a foreign contribution as Mr. Sanjay is an NRI, and the amount is small.
Q129FCRA Contributions

A person resident in India works abroad and earns a salary. They donate Rs. 10 lakhs from their personal savings (earned abroad) to their alma mater (a college in India). If this person is an Indian citizen (NRI), is this donation typically considered a "foreign contribution" under FCRA?

AYes, all donations from persons residing abroad are FC.
BNo, as an NRI donating from personal savings to their old college, it's not considered FC.
CYes, if the amount exceeds Rs. 1 lakh, it's always FC.
DOnly if the college uses it for non-educational purposes.
Q130FCRA Contributions

If a person receives foreign contribution as a gift from a relative (who is a foreign source) and the value of such gift exceeds Rs. 10 lakhs in a financial year, they are required to intimate the Central Government in Form FC-1. Within what period must this intimation be made?

AWithin 30 days of receiving the gift.
BWithin 60 days of receiving the gift.
CWithin 3 months from the date of receipt of such contribution.
DBy the end of the financial year in which the gift was received.
FCRA End Use 1 question
Q131FCRA End Use

A person resident in India receives foreign contribution in their personal capacity. Can they use this foreign contribution to invest in a Gold Deposit Scheme or similar speculative investments?

AYes, once received, the end-use is unrestricted.
BYes, if prior approval from RBI is taken for the investment.
CNo, FCRA typically restricts use of foreign contribution for speculative activities or investments not aligned with stated objectives (if any).
DOnly if the Gold Deposit Scheme is offered by a nationalized bank.
FCRA Exclusions 1 question
Q132FCRA Exclusions

An Indian company sells goods to a foreign buyer. The foreign buyer makes a payment to the Indian company for these goods. Is this payment received by the Indian company considered a "foreign contribution" under FCRA?

AYes, all payments from foreign sources are FC.
BNo, payments received as consideration for goods sold in the ordinary course of business are generally not FC.
COnly if the payment exceeds Rs. 10 lakhs.
DYes, unless routed through an AD Category-I bank.
FCRA Exemptions 1 question
Q133FCRA Exemptions

Is a scholarship received by an Indian student from a foreign university specifically for covering tuition fees and maintenance for studying abroad, generally considered exempt from FCRA compliance under specific conditions?

ANo, all foreign scholarships are considered foreign contributions.
BYes, such scholarships are often exempt if they are for a course of study and cover bona fide educational expenses.
COnly if the scholarship amount is less than Rs. 5 lakhs per annum.
DOnly if the student is nominated by the Indian government.
FCRA Fees 2 questions
Q134FCRA Fees

What is the fee typically prescribed for an application for compounding of an offence or for revision of an order under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, and what is the mode of payment?

ARs. 1,000, payable by demand draft.
BRs. 3,000, payable only through online mode.
CRs. 5,000, payable by challan.
DRs. 10,000, payable through any banking channel.
Q135FCRA Fees

If an association registered under FCRA wishes to make an application for revision of an order passed by a competent authority, what is the typical fee prescribed under FCRA Rules, and what is the mode of payment?

ARs. 1,000, via demand draft.
BRs. 3,000, via online payment only.
CRs. 5,000, via treasury challan.
DNo fee for revision applications.
FCRA Foreign Contribution 3 questions
Q136FCRA Foreign Contribution

Mr. X, an Indian resident, incurred Rs. 1,25,000 for travel expenses within India on behalf of Mr. A, a foreign national visiting India. Mr. A subsequently reimbursed Mr. X for these expenses. Is this reimbursement to Mr. X considered a "foreign contribution" under FCRA?

ANo, as it's a reimbursement for actual expenses incurred locally.
BYes, as the source of funds for reimbursement is foreign, it is treated as foreign contribution.
COnly if Mr. A is a foreign government official.
DOnly if the reimbursement exceeds Rs. 2 lakhs.
Q137FCRA Foreign Contribution

An Indian resident (Y) receives a diamond ring as a gift from a foreign national (X) while X is visiting India. The ring was purchased in India by X for Rs. 90,000, but its market value on the day it was gifted to Y is Rs. 1,10,000. Is this ring considered a "foreign contribution" received by Y under FCRA?

ANo, because it was purchased in India with Indian Rupees.
BYes, because its market value exceeds Rs. 1 lakh and it's a gift from a foreign source.
CNo, gifts between individuals are exempt from FCRA.
DOnly if X brought the ring from a foreign country.
Q138FCRA Foreign Contribution

A foreign national, Mr. A, visits India and gifts a diamond ring (purchased by him outside India) to Mr. X, an Indian resident. The market value of the ring in India at the time of the gift is Rs. 1.2 lakhs. Is this gift a "foreign contribution" (FC) for Mr. X under FCRA?

ANo, gifts from individuals are exempt if below Rs. 5 lakhs.
BYes, as it's an article from a foreign source exceeding the prescribed value limits for casual gifts.
CNo, because the gift was given in India, not received from abroad.
DOnly if Mr. A is a foreign government official.
FCRA Foreign Hospitality 3 questions
Q139FCRA Foreign Hospitality

If X, an Indian resident, gifts a new car purchased in India to Y, a foreign national visiting India, is this transaction considered "Foreign Hospitality" by Y under FCRA?

AYes, any gift to a foreigner in India is foreign hospitality.
BNo, foreign hospitality under FCRA typically involves costs for hospitality received by an Indian citizen from a foreign source, often outside India.
COnly if the car's value exceeds Rs. 1 lakh.
DYes, if Y uses the car for more than 30 days in India.
Q140FCRA Foreign Hospitality

Mr. Y, an Indian host, gives a cheque of Rs. 20,000 to Mr. X, a foreign national visiting India, to cover Mr. X's local travel expenses within India during his visit. Is this payment by Mr. Y considered "Foreign Hospitality" received by Mr. X under FCRA?

AYes, as it's a hospitality expense covered for a foreigner.
BNo, "Foreign Hospitality" under FCRA refers to hospitality received by Indian citizens from foreign sources, not hospitality given by Indians to foreigners in India.
COnly if Mr. Y used foreign funds to issue the cheque.
DYes, if Mr. X stays in India for more than 180 days using this support.
Q141FCRA Foreign Hospitality

If a person receives foreign hospitality from a foreign source while visiting a foreign country, and the value of such hospitality exceeds prescribed limits, to whom must they typically give intimation under FCRA, 2010?

AThe Reserve Bank of India.
BThe Indian Embassy in that foreign country.
CThe Central Government (Ministry of Home Affairs).
DTheir employer in India.
FCRA Loans 1 question
Q142FCRA Loans

Mr. A, a Singapore resident, provides a loan of USD 200,000 to a partnership firm in India for the purpose of the firm buying a residential villa. Is this transaction generally permissible under FCRA without specific approvals, assuming it's a genuine loan?

ANo, all loans from foreign residents to Indian firms are prohibited foreign contributions.
BYes, if it's a bona fide loan transaction, it's usually outside FCRA purview (governed by FEMA/RBI for debt).
COnly if the interest rate is below the prescribed FCRA limit.
DPermissible only if the partnership firm is engaged in charitable activities.
FCRA Registration 4 questions
Q143FCRA Registration

If the Central Government suspends the Certificate of Registration (COR) of an association under FCRA, what is the maximum initial period of such suspension, which can be further extended?

A90 days, extendable by another 90 days.
B180 days, extendable by another 180 days.
C1 year, extendable by another 1 year.
DIndefinite, until the inquiry is complete.
Q144FCRA Registration

If an FCRA registration certificate is surrendered by an association, on what date is the surrender considered effective or the registration deemed to have expired?

AImmediately upon submission of the surrender application.
B30 days after the submission of the surrender application.
COn the date of acceptance of the surrender by the Central Government.
DAt the end of the financial year in which the surrender application is made.
Q145FCRA Registration

An association's FCRA registration is surrendered. What is the typical "cooling-off" period after the acceptance of surrender before this association can apply for fresh FCRA registration?

A6 months
B1 year
C2 years
D3 years
Q146FCRA Registration

If an association's FCRA registration certificate is surrendered and accepted by the Central Government, for how long is this association typically ineligible to apply for fresh FCRA registration or prior permission?

A1 year from acceptance of surrender.
B2 years from acceptance of surrender.
C3 years from acceptance of surrender.
D5 years from acceptance of surrender.
FCRA Renewal 1 question
Q147FCRA Renewal

Within what period before the expiry of its existing Certificate of Registration (COR) must an association typically apply for renewal under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010?

AWithin 1 month before expiry.
BWithin 3 months before expiry.
CWithin 6 months before expiry.
DWithin 12 months before expiry.
FCRA Reporting 2 questions
Q148FCRA Reporting

If a bank receives foreign contribution on behalf of an FCRA-registered association, to whom and within how many hours must the bank typically report the receipt of such contribution?

ATo the Reserve Bank of India within 24 hours.
BTo the Central Government (Ministry of Home Affairs) within 48 hours.
CTo the association itself within 72 hours.
DTo the Income Tax Department within 7 days.
Q149FCRA Reporting

To which authority should a bank primarily report transactions related to the receipt and utilisation of foreign contributions by an FCRA-registered entity?

AThe Reserve Bank of India (RBI) only.
BThe Central Government (Ministry of Home Affairs) only.
CBoth RBI and the Central Government (MHA).
DThe Income Tax Department and the Enforcement Directorate.
FCRA Transactions 1 question
Q150FCRA Transactions

Can a Person Resident Outside India (PROI) lend money to a partnership firm in India as an advance payment against future supply of goods or services by the Indian firm to the PROI, under FCRA, without it being treated as a prohibited foreign contribution?

ANo, any funds from PROI to an Indian entity are FC.
BYes, if it's a genuine trade advance in ordinary course of business, it's generally not FC, but FEMA/RBI rules for advances apply.
COnly if the loan is interest-free.
DOnly with prior approval from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
FCRA Valuation 1 question
Q151FCRA Valuation

An association registered under FCRA receives a foreign contribution that includes currency as well as articles. How should the value of the articles received as foreign contribution be accounted for?

AAt their original purchase price in the foreign country.
BAt their declared value by the foreign donor.
CAt their market value in India at the time of receipt.
DArticles are not considered part of foreign contribution value, only currency is.
FEMA 2 questions
Q152FEMA

An individual resident in India earned salary income in a foreign country several years ago while working there. If they now wish to bring and utilize this legitimately earned past foreign salary in India, is any specific permission generally required under FEMA?

AYes, RBI approval is mandatory.
BYes, permission from the Ministry of Finance is required.
CNo, generally no permission is required for repatriating past legitimate foreign earnings by a resident.
DYes, if the amount exceeds USD 10,000.
Q153FEMA

Can a Person Resident in India (PRI) make a remittance under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) for the purpose of investing in units of a Mutual Fund or Venture Capital Fund located abroad?

ANo, LRS cannot be used for any overseas investments.
BYes, LRS permits remittances for acquiring and holding shares, debt instruments, or units in MF/VCFs overseas, subject to limits.
COnly if the investment is in a fund that invests back into India.
DOnly with prior approval from SEBI.
FEMA Adjudication 1 question
Q154FEMA Adjudication

Under FEMA, what is the general time limit within which an Adjudicating Authority (AA) is expected to dispose of a complaint or an application for adjudication from the date of its receipt?

AWithin 90 days.
BWithin 180 days.
CWithin 1 year.
DWithin 2 years.
FEMA Appeals 1 question
Q155FEMA Appeals

An appeal against an order passed by an Assistant Director or Deputy Director of Enforcement (under FEMA) should typically be made to whom and within what time limit?

ATo the Director of Enforcement within 30 days.
BTo the Special Director (Appeals) within 45 days from receipt of the order.
CTo the Appellate Tribunal for Foreign Exchange within 60 days.
DTo the High Court within 90 days.
FEMA Capital Account 1 question
Q156FEMA Capital Account

In the context of FEMA, what does "Capital Account Transaction" generally refer to?

AAny transaction involving the import or export of goods and services.
BTransactions related to payment of interest on loans or net income from investments.
CTransactions which alter the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of persons resident in India, or assets or liabilities in India of persons resident outside India.
DOnly investments made by foreign institutional investors in Indian stock markets.
FEMA Current Account 2 questions
Q157FEMA Current Account

An Indian company earns commission from facilitating the sale of real estate property located in India to a foreign entity. Is this commission income subject to FEMA regulations regarding its receipt and repatriation?

ANo, as the property is in India, FEMA does not apply to the commission.
BYes, any earning in foreign exchange by an Indian entity, including commission for services rendered, is subject to FEMA for receipt and repatriation.
COnly if the commission exceeds USD 1 million.
DOnly if the foreign entity is from a country not having a DTAA with India.
Q158FEMA Current Account

A company imported machinery and agreed to pay for it in five equal monthly installments. How is this transaction typically classified under FEMA - as a current account transaction or a capital account transaction?

ACapital account transaction, as it involves an asset.
BCurrent account transaction, as payments for imports are generally current account.
CPartly current (interest component) and partly capital (principal component).
DDeferred payment capital account transaction requiring specific approval.
FEMA ECB 7 questions
Q159FEMA ECB

For an External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) raised by a manufacturing company specifically for working capital purposes, what is the typical Minimum Average Maturity Period (MAMP) if the ECB amount is USD 55 million?

A1 year
B3 years
C5 years
D10 years
Q160FEMA ECB

For an External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) raised specifically for the purchase of new plant and machinery, where the ECB amount is up to Rs. 300 crores (or its equivalent), what is a common Minimum Average Maturity Period (MAMP)?

A3 years
B5 years
C7 years
D10 years
Q161FEMA ECB

If a Foreign Currency External Commercial Borrowing (FCY ECB) is converted into an Indian Rupee (INR) ECB, what exchange rate is typically used for such conversion?

AThe average exchange rate of the preceding 30 days.
BThe exchange rate prevailing on the date of the conversion agreement, or a rate less than that if agreed by the lender.
CThe exchange rate as notified by the Reserve Bank of India for this specific purpose.
DThe exchange rate prevailing on the date the original FCY ECB was drawn down.
Q162FEMA ECB

What is the typical maximum eligible amount of External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) that can be raised by an eligible borrower in a financial year under the automatic route as per the general ECB framework?

AUSD 250 million or its equivalent.
BUSD 500 million or its equivalent.
CUSD 750 million or its equivalent per financial year.
DUSD 1 billion or its equivalent.
Q163FEMA ECB

A company borrowed ECB from an external lender. Can this company use the proceeds of this ECB to invest in a startup company located outside India without specific approvals, assuming the ECB was for general corporate purposes?

AYes, ECB funds can be freely used for any overseas investment.
BNo, ECB proceeds generally cannot be used for on-lending or investment in capital markets or for acquiring a company (or part thereof) domestically or overseas, without specific permissions.
COnly if the startup is a wholly owned subsidiary.
DYes, if the ECB agreement allows for such end-use.
Q164FEMA ECB

Can the proceeds of an External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) denominated in Rupees (INR ECB) be used for the repayment of existing Rupee loans taken in India by the borrower?

ANo, ECB proceeds cannot be used for repaying domestic Rupee loans.
BYes, this is generally a permitted end-use, but typically not for refinancing existing ECBs.
COnly if the domestic loan was taken for capital expenditure.
DOnly with specific approval from the Department of Economic Affairs.
Q165FEMA ECB

Are proceeds from an External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) generally permitted to be used for acquiring land or engaging in real estate activities in India by the borrower?

AYes, if the real estate activity is for developing affordable housing projects.
BYes, if prior approval from the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is obtained.
CNo, ECB proceeds are generally not permitted for investment in real estate activities or purchase of land.
DOnly for acquisition of land for industrial use by manufacturing companies.
FEMA Exports 2 questions
Q166FEMA Exports

Under FEMA, if a foreign exchange receivable arising out of export sales remains outstanding for more than a specified period, under what condition is a "write-off" of such unrealized export bills generally permissible by an AD Category-I bank without specific RBI approval (within certain limits)?

AIf the exporter surrenders proportionate export incentives.
BIf the amount has remained outstanding for more than one year.
COnly if the overseas buyer has been declared bankrupt.
DIf the exporter obtains a No Objection Certificate from the DGFT.
Q167FEMA Exports

When an Indian exporter makes their first shipment of goods, within how many days from the date of shipment must they typically furnish the relevant export documents to the authorized dealer bank?

AWithin 7 days.
BWithin 15 days.
CWithin 21 days.
DWithin 30 days.
FEMA Forex Surrender 1 question
Q168FEMA Forex Surrender

What is the general time limit for a person resident in India to surrender received or unspent foreign exchange to an authorised dealer if the amount exceeds USD 2,000 (or its equivalent)?

AWithin 30 days from receipt/return.
BWithin 90 days from receipt/return.
CWithin 180 days from receipt/return.
DThere is no time limit; it can be held indefinitely.
FEMA LRS 6 questions
Q169FEMA LRS

A Person Resident in India wishes to remit funds abroad for medical treatment of a family member under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS). What is a key requirement for such a remittance?

AThe remittance must be made only from an NRE account.
BA No Objection Certificate from the Ministry of Health is required.
CThe remittance must be supported by an estimate from a doctor in India or a hospital/doctor abroad, and AD bank must be satisfied with bona fides.
DThe amount must not exceed USD 100,000 per financial year.
Q170FEMA LRS

Mr. X, an Indian resident, sent USD 2,80,000 to his daughter studying abroad under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) in a financial year. The actual university fee was USD 1,00,000, and the rest was for her maintenance and other expenses. Did Mr. X contravene the LRS overall limit if the limit per person per FY is USD 2,50,000?

ANo, as education has a higher permissible limit.
BNo, if he obtained specific RBI approval for the excess amount.
CYes, he has exceeded the general LRS limit of USD 2,50,000 without specific additional permissions for current account transactions.
DOnly if the daughter is a minor.
Q171FEMA LRS

An Indian resident sends USD 260,000 abroad under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) in a single financial year for their child's education and maintenance, where the LRS limit is USD 250,000 per person per FY. Has a contravention of FEMA occurred?

ANo, education expenses have a higher LRS limit.
BNo, if the excess USD 10,000 was for tuition fees paid directly to the university.
CYes, the LRS overall limit has been exceeded without specific RBI approval for the excess amount.
DOnly if the child is above 21 years of age.
Q172FEMA LRS

What does the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) under FEMA primarily allow for Resident Individuals?

ATo freely invest in Indian stock markets without any limit.
BTo make remittances up to a certain limit per financial year for permissible current and capital account transactions.
CTo receive unlimited foreign currency from relatives abroad without declaration.
DTo open and maintain foreign currency accounts in India with any bank.
Q173FEMA LRS

A Person Resident in India (PRI) makes a gift in Indian Rupees to a Person Resident Outside India (PROI) who is a close relative (e.g., son). Is this transaction permissible under FEMA's Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS)?

ANo, gifts to PROIs can only be in foreign currency.
BYes, PRIs can make Rupee gifts to NRI/PIO close relatives under LRS, by crediting their NRO account, subject to overall LRS limits.
COnly if the PROI relative is visiting India at the time of the gift.
DNo, gifts to PROIs are not covered under LRS.
Q174FEMA LRS

In the context of FEMA, if an Indian resident is making a remittance under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) for "maintenance of close relatives abroad," who are generally considered "close relatives"?

AOnly spouse and children.
BSpouse, children, parents, and siblings.
CAny relative as defined under the Companies Act, 2013.
DAny person dependent on the remitter, irrespective of relationship.
FEMA ODI 5 questions
Q175FEMA ODI

Can a Person Resident in India (PRI) make an Overseas Direct Investment (ODI) in a foreign company whose primary business activity is real estate, such as construction and leasing of residential complexes, without specific RBI approval?

AYes, if the investment is within the LRS limit.
BYes, if it's a joint venture with a local partner in the foreign country.
CNo, ODIs in foreign entities engaged in real estate business are generally prohibited or require prior RBI approval.
DOnly if the investment is made through a listed Indian company.
Q176FEMA ODI

From which primary channel or type of institution must an Overseas Direct Investment (ODI) by an Indian party generally be made as per FEMA regulations?

ADirectly through any international bank.
BThrough an Authorized Dealer Category-I bank or a financial institution regulated by RBI.
CThrough a registered export-import consultant.
DThrough the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Q177FEMA ODI

What is the typical financial commitment limit for Overseas Direct Investment (ODI) under the automatic route for an eligible Indian party, in relation to its net worth as per its last audited balance sheet?

ANot exceeding 100% of its net worth.
BNot exceeding 200% of its net worth or USD 500 million, whichever is lower.
CNot exceeding 400% of its net worth or USD 1 billion, whichever is lower (subject to overall sectoral caps).
DThere is no specific limit linked to net worth under the automatic route.
Q178FEMA ODI

An Indian company (Person Resident in India) wishes to make an Overseas Direct Investment (ODI) in a foreign entity engaged purely in real estate business (e.g., buying and selling land). Is this generally permitted under FEMA's automatic route?

AYes, if the investment is less than 400% of the Indian party's net worth.
BYes, if the foreign entity is located in a country with a tax treaty with India.
CNo, ODI in foreign entities engaged in real estate business is generally prohibited or requires specific RBI approval.
DOnly if the real estate is for the Indian company's own office use abroad.
Q179FEMA ODI

An Indian company (PRI) wishes to purchase an office building abroad for its established overseas business operations using funds from its Indian bank accounts. Is this permissible under FEMA's automatic route for Overseas Direct Investment (ODI), subject to limits?

ANo, acquisition of immovable property abroad always requires specific RBI approval.
BYes, Indian entities can acquire immovable property overseas for bona fide business needs of their overseas office under automatic route within ODI limits.
COnly if the property is taken on a long-term lease, not outright purchase.
DOnly if the property is located in a SAARC country.
FEMA Property 1 question
Q180FEMA Property

Mr. Narayana, an Australian resident (Person of Indian Origin), wants to purchase a duplex house in India. He transfers funds to an Indian partnership firm to facilitate this purchase. What is a key FEMA consideration for Mr. Narayana regarding this transaction?

ANo specific approval needed if funds are from NRE account.
BHe must purchase directly, not through a partnership firm.
CHe must obtain prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for transferring funds to a partnership firm for such property acquisition.
DThe partnership firm must be registered as an AD Category-II bank.
FEMA Property Abroad 4 questions
Q181FEMA Property Abroad

Mr. A, a German citizen permanently residing and working in Germany (non-resident for FEMA), wishes to purchase an office space in Germany. Does he require any approval from Indian authorities like RBI or Central Government under FEMA for this transaction?

AYes, as he was previously associated with an Indian company.
BNo, as a non-resident for FEMA, his acquisition of property outside India is not governed by Indian FEMA restrictions applicable to residents.
COnly if the value of the office space exceeds USD 1 million.
DYes, if he intends to lease it to an Indian company.
Q182FEMA Property Abroad

An Indian company wishes to acquire immovable property abroad for its business operations (e.g., an office space) and for residential purposes of its staff posted there. Is this generally permissible under FEMA without specific RBI approval, assuming it's funded from its Indian accounts within certain limits?

ANo, all acquisitions of immovable property abroad by Indian companies require prior RBI approval.
BYes, Indian entities having an overseas office can acquire immovable property abroad for their business and for staff residence, within certain limits and compliance.
COnly if the property is taken on lease, not purchased.
DOnly if the foreign country has a bilateral investment treaty with India.
Q183FEMA Property Abroad

What is the general rule under FEMA regarding a Person Resident in India (PRI) acquiring immovable property outside India without specific RBI approval?

APRIs can freely acquire any immovable property outside India without limit.
BPRIs cannot acquire any immovable property outside India under any circumstances.
CPRIs can acquire immovable property outside India only through inheritance or gift from a PROI.
DPRIs can acquire immovable property outside India under LRS limits, or if inherited/gifted from specified relatives, or out of foreign assets held abroad.
Q184FEMA Property Abroad

Under FEMA, if a Person Resident in India (PRI) acquires immovable property outside India by way of inheritance from a Person Resident Outside India (PROI), is specific RBI approval generally required for holding such property?

AYes, RBI approval is always required for PRIs to hold property abroad.
BNo, property acquired by way of inheritance from a PROI can generally be held by a PRI without RBI approval.
COnly if the value of the property exceeds USD 250,000.
DOnly if the PROI was not a relative of the PRI.
FEMA Real Estate 1 question
Q185FEMA Real Estate

A Person Resident Outside India (PROI) wishes to invest in real estate in India by acquiring agricultural land. What is the general position under FEMA regarding such an investment by a PROI (other than NRIs/OCIs under specific schemes)?

APermitted freely under the automatic route.
BPermitted with prior approval from the Ministry of Agriculture.
CGenerally prohibited, except under specific RBI/Government approval or inheritance.
DPermitted only if the land is used for developing an SEZ.
FEMA Remittances 5 questions
Q186FEMA Remittances

If container detention charges exceed the normal level and the remitter needs approval for outward remittance under FEMA, which authority's approval is typically sought?

AReserve Bank of India (Foreign Exchange Department).
BMinistry of Finance (Department of Economic Affairs).
CMinistry of Surface Transport (Director General of Shipping).
DMinistry of Commerce (Director General of Foreign Trade).
Q187FEMA Remittances

What is the maximum commission an Authorised Dealer Category – I bank may permit to be paid to an agent overseas for facilitating the sale of a residential flat or plot in India, subject to certain conditions under FEMA?

A2% of inward remittance or USD 10,000, whichever is higher.
B5% of inward remittance or USD 25,000, whichever is lower.
C10% of inward remittance or USD 50,000, whichever is lower.
DA fixed amount of USD 15,000 per transaction.
Q188FEMA Remittances

If an outward remittance for P&I (Protection and Indemnity) Club membership by an Indian shipping company exceeds the prescribed threshold under FEMA, which authority's approval is generally required?

AReserve Bank of India (Foreign Exchange Department).
BMinistry of Finance (Insurance Division).
CDirector General of Shipping.
DMinistry of Corporate Affairs.
Q189FEMA Remittances

John, a foreign national on a work visa in India, earns a monthly salary. He wishes to remit his net salary (after Indian taxes) abroad. What is the general FEMA provision for such remittances by foreign nationals temporarily resident in India?

AThey can remit only up to 50% of their net salary.
BThey can remit their entire net salary after payment of taxes, subject to documentation.
CRemittance is limited to USD 10,000 per month.
DThey need prior RBI approval for any salary remittance.
Q190FEMA Remittances

For remittance of prize money won in an international sports event or sponsorship of a sports activity programme abroad by an Indian entity, if the amount exceeds certain limits under FEMA, which Ministry's approval is primarily required?

AMinistry of External Affairs.
BMinistry of Finance (Department of Revenue).
CMinistry of Youth Affairs & Sports (Department of Youth Affairs & Sports).
DMinistry of Commerce and Industry.
FEMA Repatriation 2 questions
Q191FEMA Repatriation

Mr. X, a Person Resident in India (PRI), previously worked in the USA and earned salary which he kept in his US bank account. He has now returned to India for permanent settlement. If he wishes to sell his properties in the USA (acquired from his US earnings) and invest those proceeds in foreign securities while being a PRI, what is a key FEMA requirement?

ANo specific RBI permission needed if proceeds are reinvested abroad.
BHe must repatriate all sale proceeds to India within 90 days.
CHe must obtain prior permission from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for such repatriation and reinvestment in foreign securities.
DHe can freely invest in foreign securities up to USD 250,000 per year under LRS from those proceeds.
Q192FEMA Repatriation

Mr. X, a Person Resident in India, returns to India for permanent settlement after working in the USA for several years. He had acquired properties in the USA from his earnings there. If he now sells these US properties, can he freely invest the sale proceeds into other foreign securities while being a resident in India, without any specific RBI approval?

AYes, up to the LRS limit of USD 250,000 per year.
BYes, as the funds were originally earned abroad, they can be freely reinvested abroad.
CNo, once he becomes a PRI, retaining and reinvesting such large foreign capital account proceeds abroad usually requires RBI approval or adherence to specific FEMA rules beyond general LRS.
DOnly if he invests in government bonds of OECD countries.
FEMA Residential Status 8 questions
Q193FEMA Residential Status

Mr. A, a German citizen, was employed by an Indian company and posted permanently in its German office with no intention of returning to India. Can Mr. A purchase a residential house in Germany without needing specific approval under Indian FEMA regulations?

ANo, as an ex-employee of an Indian company, FEMA applies.
BYes, as he is a non-resident for FEMA purposes, Indian FEMA rules on acquiring property abroad by residents wouldn't restrict him in Germany.
COnly if the purchase is funded through his Indian bank accounts.
DHe needs approval from the Indian embassy in Germany.
Q194FEMA Residential Status

An Indian company (PRI) establishes a branch office in Australia for warehousing, and this branch is controlled by the Indian head office. What is the typical residential status of this Australian branch office under FEMA from the perspective of the Indian company's ODI?

APerson Resident Outside India (PROI) as it's located in Australia.
BPerson Resident in India (PRI) as it's controlled by an Indian entity.
CA non-resident entity for all FEMA purposes.
DDepends on the nationality of the branch manager.
Q195FEMA Residential Status

An Indian company has an overseas office (branch) in Australia, which is controlled by the Indian head office. For the purposes of FEMA regulations concerning Overseas Direct Investment (ODI) by the Indian company, what is the typical residential status of this Australian branch?

APerson Resident Outside India (PROI) independently.
BConsidered part of the Person Resident in India (PRI) (i.e., the Indian company).
CA deemed non-resident Indian entity.
DIts status depends on the number of days its employees stay in Australia. Case study Mr. Rohan, an Indian citizen, was residing in India continuously for several years prior to FY 2019-20 and was a Person Resident in India (PRI) for FEMA purposes up to FY 2018-19. His movements and intentions are as follows: Departure for Studies (FY 2019-20): Rohan departed from India for the first time on August 16, 2019, to pursue a 3-year Master's degree program in Copenhagen, Denmark. His clear intention at the time of departure was to stay abroad for the entire duration of his 3-year course. Temporary Return due to Pandemic (FY 2019-20 & FY 2020-21): Due to the global COVID-19 pandemic and university closures, Rohan temporarily returned to India on March 1, 2020. He stayed in India thereafter.
Q196FEMA Residential Status

Based on the case study, what was Mr. Rohan's residential status under FEMA for the Financial Year 2019-20 (April 1, 2019 – March 31, 2020)?

APRI, as he was in India for more than 182 days.
BPROI, from August 16, 2019, as he left for studies abroad for a definite period exceeding one year.
CPRI for the full year, as his return in March 2020 nullified his PROI status.
DPROI for the full year, as he intended to study abroad.
Q197FEMA Residential Status

Considering the facts, what was Mr. Rohan's residential status under FEMA for the Financial Year 2020-21 (April 1, 2020 – March 31, 2021)?

APRI, because his total stay in India during the preceding FY 2019-20 was more than 182 days.
BPROI, because he was in India only temporarily due to the pandemic and his primary intention was to continue studies abroad.
CPRI, because he was physically present in India from March 10, 2020, to September 30, 2020.
DPROI, because his stay in India during FY 2020-21 itself was less than 182 days.
Q198FEMA Residential Status

What was Mr. Rohan's residential status under FEMA for the Financial Year 2021-22 (April 1, 2021 – March 31, 2022)?

APRI, as he was pursuing a Master's degree which is considered a temporary stay abroad.
BPROI, as he was continuously outside India pursuing his studies for the entire financial year.
CPRI, because his visit to India in FY 2020-21 re-established his residency.
DDepends on whether he visited India during FY 2021-22.
Q199FEMA Residential Status

Determine Mr. Rohan's residential status under FEMA for the Financial Year 2022-23 (April 1, 2022 – March 31, 2023).

APRI for the entire year as he completed his studies and returned to India.
BPROI for the entire year as he left India for employment in the UK for an indefinite period.
CPRI from April 1, 2022, until August 24, 2022, and PROI from August 25, 2022, onwards.
DPROI until August 9, 2022, then PRI from August 10 to September 4, 2022, then PROI from September 5, 2022.
Q200FEMA Residential Status

For the Financial Year 2023-24 (April 1, 2023 – March 31, 2024), what would Mr. Rohan's residential status under FEMA most likely be, assuming he continued his employment in the UK?

APRI, as his Indian citizenship remains.
BPROI, as he is employed outside India for an indefinite period.
CPRI, if he visits India for more than 30 days during FY 2023-24.
DPROI, but only if he has formally renounced his Indian citizenship.
Financial Assistance 1 question
Q201Financial Assistance

Which of the following scenarios would typically NOT be considered a permissible exception for a public company providing financial assistance (directly or indirectly) for the purchase of or subscription for its own shares or shares in its holding company?

ALoans made by a lending company in its ordinary course of business.
BMoney provided for purchase of fully paid shares by trustees for shares to be held for the benefit of employees.
CLoans to employees (other than directors/KMP) not exceeding their six months' salary for purchasing fully paid shares.
DA loan made to a promoter to help them consolidate their shareholding in the company.
Financial Statements 1 question
Q202Financial Statements

As per the Companies Act, 2013, which of the following is NOT necessarily included in the definition of "financial statement" in relation to a company?

ABalance sheet as at the end of the financial year.
BProfit and loss account, or in the case of a NFP company, an income and expenditure account.
CCash flow statement for the financial year.
DThe Board of Directors' report.
Financial Year 1 question
Q203Financial Year

A company is a holding company of an entity incorporated outside India, which requires a different financial year for consolidation. Can the Indian holding company apply for a different financial year for itself?

ANo, all Indian companies must follow the April 1st to March 31st financial year.
BYes, it can directly adopt the subsidiary's financial year without any approval.
CYes, it can apply to the Central Government for approval of a different financial year.
DYes, it can apply to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for permission to align its financial year.
First Auditor 1 question
Q204First Auditor

Who is primarily responsible for appointing the first statutory auditors of a newly incorporated company (other than a Government company or a company owned/controlled by Government), and within what timeframe from the date of the company's registration must this appointment typically be made?

AThe members at the first Annual General Meeting, within 90 days of registration.
BThe Board of Directors, within 30 days of registration.
CThe Central Government, within 60 days of registration.
DThe Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, within 180 days of registration.
Foreign Company 1 question
Q205Foreign Company

If a foreign company, which was registered in India, ceases to have any place of business in India, what is its resultant status under the Companies Act, 2013?

AIt remains a foreign company but is classified as inactive.
BIt must apply for dormant company status in India.
CIt shall be deemed to have ceased to be a foreign company for the purposes of the Act.
DIt must initiate voluntary winding up proceedings in India.
Foreign Subsidiary 1 question
Q206Foreign Subsidiary

If a company incorporated in India has a foreign subsidiary (a company incorporated outside India but controlled by the Indian company), what is the residential status of this foreign subsidiary for the purposes of certain provisions under Indian Company Law relating to group structures or disclosures?

AAlways considered resident outside India due to its place of incorporation.
BConsidered resident in India if its effective management is in India.
CConsidered resident in India for the purpose of consolidation and group oversight under Co. Act.
DResidential status is irrelevant for foreign subsidiaries.
Fraud Penalties 2 questions
Q207Fraud Penalties

For an offence covered under section 447 (Punishment for fraud) of the Companies Act, 2013, when investigated by the SFIO, how is the offence generally classified in terms of bail?

ABailable and non-cognizable.
BNon-bailable and cognizable.
CBailable and cognizable.
DNon-bailable and non-cognizable. General
Q208Fraud Penalties

What is the maximum time typically allowed for creditors of a company to consent to a scheme of compromise or arrangement to enable the company to request the NCLT to dispense with the calling of a creditors' meeting?

A30 days from the date of notice.
B45 days from the date of notice.
C60 days from the date of notice.
DNo specific time limit; depends on NCLT discretion.
Government Company 1 question
Q209Government Company

ABC Ltd. has shareholding as follows: Central Govt: 24%, State Govt of Andhra Pradesh: 20%, PQR Ltd. (a Govt. Company): 10%. Is ABC Ltd. a Government Company based on this structure?

ANo, because no single government entity holds more than 50%.
BNo, because the combined holding of Central and State governments is only 44%.
CYes, because the total holding by Central Govt, State Govt, and another Govt Company is 54%.
DYes, but only if PQR Ltd. is a Central Government company.
Government Company Audit 1 question
Q210Government Company Audit

Who is primarily responsible for appointing the statutory auditors of a Government Company or any other company owned or controlled, directly or indirectly, by the Central Government, or by any State Government, or Governments, or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments?

AThe Board of Directors of the company.
BThe shareholders of the company in a general meeting.
CThe Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (C&AG).
DThe National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA).
Holding Subsidiary 1 question
Q211Holding Subsidiary

Which statement best defines a "holding company" in relation to one or more other companies?

AA company that holds more than 10% of the total voting power in another company.
BA company that controls the composition of the Board of Directors or controls more than one- half of the total voting power of another company, either by itself or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies.
CA company that has a significant influence over another company but does not control it.
DAny company that has invested in the share capital of another company.
IBC 2 questions
Q212IBC

In the context of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC), can an Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) manage and maintain the bank accounts of the corporate debtor during the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP)?

ANo, only the suspended Board of Directors can operate bank accounts.
BYes, the IRP has the power to operate and manage the corporate debtor's bank accounts.
COnly with prior approval from the Committee of Creditors for each transaction.
DOnly after the appointment of a Resolution Professional (RP).
Q213IBC

Under the IBC, if the Committee of Creditors (CoC) approves a resolution plan with the requisite majority, and the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) is satisfied that it meets all requirements, what is the effect of the NCLT's order approving the plan?

AThe order is merely recommendatory to the corporate debtor.
BThe resolution plan becomes binding on the corporate debtor and all its stakeholders.
CThe corporate debtor can choose to accept or reject the approved plan.
DThe plan is binding only on the financial creditors who voted for it.
IBC Admission 1 question
Q214IBC Admission

If a financial creditor initiates CIRP against a corporate debtor, and the corporate debtor disputes the claim stating that the debt is barred by limitation, can the NCLT admit the application?

AYes, NCLT does not look into the aspect of limitation for CIRP.
BNo, if the debt is proven to be time-barred, the application for CIRP cannot be admitted.
CYes, but the CIRP will be limited to assets acquired after the limitation period expired.
DOnly if the financial creditor agrees to waive the time-barred portion of the debt.
IBC Appeals 1 question
Q215IBC Appeals

Within what period from the date of an order passed by the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) in an insolvency proceeding must an appeal typically be filed with the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)?

AWithin 15 days.
BWithin 30 days.
CWithin 45 days.
DWithin 60 days.
IBC Application 1 question
Q216IBC Application

What information must typically be included in an application filed by a financial creditor with the NCLT to initiate CIRP against a corporate debtor, apart from the record of default?

AA detailed business plan for the corporate debtor.
BConsent from at least 10% of other financial creditors.
CThe name of the proposed Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) and any other information as specified.
DA valuation report of the corporate debtor's assets.
IBC Appointment 2 questions
Q217IBC Appointment

What is the minimum percentage of voting share in the Committee of Creditors (CoC) required to approve the appointment of the Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) as the Resolution Professional (RP) for the CIRP?

A0.51
B0.66
C0.75
D0.9
Q218IBC Appointment

In an insolvency case under IBC, who typically appoints the Resolution Professional (RP) if the Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) is to be replaced or if the IRP is confirmed as RP?

AThe National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) directly.
BThe Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI).
CThe Committee of Creditors (CoC) by the requisite voting majority.
DThe corporate debtor's management.
IBC Assignment 1 question
Q219IBC Assignment

Can an operational creditor who has supplied goods to a corporate debtor assign their right to receive the operational debt to another person (e.g., a financial institution) during the pendency of CIRP of the corporate debtor?

ANo, assignment of operational debt is prohibited once CIRP commences.
BYes, operational debt can be freely assigned at any time, and the assignee steps into the shoes of the original OC.
COnly with the prior approval of the Resolution Professional.
DOnly if the assignment is to another operational creditor of the same corporate debtor.
IBC Committee 1 question
Q220IBC Committee

What is the primary composition of the Committee of Creditors (CoC) in a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) under the IBC?

AAll creditors of the corporate debtor, including operational creditors.
BOnly secured financial creditors.
CAll financial creditors of the corporate debtor.
DRepresentatives of financial creditors, operational creditors, and workmen.
IBC Definitions 5 questions
Q221IBC Definitions

Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, what does the "insolvency commencement date" signify?

AThe date on which the company first defaulted on its debt.
BThe date on which the application for initiating CIRP is filed with the Adjudicating Authority.
CThe date of admission of an application for initiating CIRP by the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT).
DThe date on which the Interim Resolution Professional is appointed.
Q222IBC Definitions

In the context of IBC, which of the following best describes a "corporate debtor"?

AA company that has lent money to another company.
BAny person who owes a debt to any other person.
CA corporate person (e.g., company, LLP) who owes a debt to any person.
DA financial institution that has defaulted on its obligations.
Q223IBC Definitions

Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, who among the following would be classified as an "operational debtor" if they owe an "operational debt"?

AA bank that has defaulted on interest payments to its depositors.
BA company that has failed to repay a loan to a financial institution.
CA company that owes money to a supplier for goods received.
DAn individual who has not paid their credit card bills.
Q224IBC Definitions

Which of the following entities is generally EXCLUDED from the definition of a "corporate person" under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, meaning CIRP cannot be initiated against it under Part II of the Code?

AA private limited company.
BA limited liability partnership (LLP).
CA financial service provider (e.g., a bank or insurance company), unless specifically notified.
DA company incorporated outside India but having a place of business in India.
Q225IBC Definitions

Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), who is defined as an "operational debtor"?

AA person who owes a financial debt.
BA person against whom an operational creditor has a claim.
CAny corporate person who is currently undergoing CIRP.
DA person who provides essential goods or services to a corporate debtor.
IBC Fast Track 1 question
Q226IBC Fast Track

For which type of companies can the "Fast Track Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process" (Chapter IV of Part II of IBC) generally be initiated, provided they meet other specified criteria?

ALarge public companies with debt exceeding Rs. 1000 crores.
BSmall companies (as defined under Companies Act), startups (other than partnership firms), and unlisted companies with assets below a certain threshold (e.g., Rs 1 crore).
COnly listed companies that have defaulted for less than 90 days.
DAny corporate debtor, irrespective of size or debt, if CoC approves by 75% vote.
IBC Liquidation 6 questions
Q227IBC Liquidation

In the context of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), what is the "Liquidation Estate" of a corporate debtor?

AOnly the unencumbered assets of the corporate debtor.
BAll assets over which the corporate debtor has ownership rights, including assets subject to security interest.
COnly the current assets and cash balances of the corporate debtor.
DThe assets specifically identified by the Committee of Creditors for sale. Case Study: Precision Fabricators Ltd. - Detailed Liquidation Scenario Precision Fabricators Ltd. ("PFL") was admitted into Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP), which subsequently failed, and a liquidation order was passed by the NCLT. The liquidation commencement date is March 1, 2025. The liquidator has realized total assets amounting to Rs. 500 lakhs. The following are the verified claims, costs, and specific dues details: CIRP Costs (unpaid): Rs. 10 lakhs Liquidation Costs: Rs. 15 lakhs Workmen's Dues (for the 24 months preceding liquidation commencement date): Rs. 96 lakhs (comprising Rs. 44L for FY24-25, Rs. 48L for FY23-24, and Rs. 4L for the relevant part of FY22-23). Debts owed to 'SecureBank Ltd.' (a financial creditor that held a charge on PFL's land and machinery, but has chosen to relinquish its security interest to the liquidation estate): Rs. 200 lakhs. Wages and any unpaid dues owed to employees (other than workmen, for the 12 months preceding liquidation commencement date): Rs. 24 lakhs (comprising Rs. 22L for FY24-25 and Rs. 2L for the relevant part of FY23-24). Financial debts owed to Unsecured Financial Creditors: Rs. 150 lakhs. Government Dues (statutory taxes outstanding for the period March 1, 2023, to February 28, 2025): Rs. 20 lakhs.
Q228IBC Liquidation

In the liquidation of Precision Fabricators Ltd., what amount will be distributed towards "Government Dues" (which have a claim of Rs. 20 lakhs)?

ARs. 20 lakhs (Full Amount)
BRs. 10 lakhs
CRs. 5 lakhs
DRs. 0 (Nil)
Q229IBC Liquidation

What is the total amount received by 'SecureBank Ltd.' (the financial creditor who relinquished security with a claim of Rs. 200 lakhs) from the liquidation estate of Precision Fabricators Ltd.?

ARs. 200 lakhs (Full Amount)
BRs. 150 lakhs
CRs. 117.5 lakhs (Pro-rata with workmen)
DRs. 0 (Nil)
Q230IBC Liquidation

What percentage of their admitted claim will the "Unsecured Financial Creditors" (with a claim of Rs. 150 lakhs) recover from the liquidation estate of Precision Fabricators Ltd.?

A0%
BApproximately 3.33%
C50%
D100%
Q231IBC Liquidation

Which of the following claimants will receive NO payment from the liquidation estate of Precision Fabricators Ltd.?

AWorkmen (for their 24 months' dues)
BEmployees (other than workmen, for their 12 months' wages)
CGovernment
DOther operational creditors (for supplies/services)
Q232IBC Liquidation

What is the total amount distributed from the liquidation estate to cover all statutory dues to employees, encompassing both "Workmen's Dues (24 months)" and "Wages of employees (other than workmen, 12 months)"?

ARs. 96 lakhs
BRs. 120 lakhs
CRs. 24 lakhs
DRs. 155 lakhs
IBC Meetings 2 questions
Q233IBC Meetings

For routine operational decisions during CIRP where the Committee of Creditors' (CoC) approval is sought by the Resolution Professional (RP), what is the typical notice period the RP should give to CoC members for convening a meeting?

AAt least 24 hours.
BAt least 3 days.
CAt least 5 days (unless a shorter period is agreed by CoC members holding 90% vote share).
DAt least 7 days.
Q234IBC Meetings

Who is responsible for convening the first meeting of the Committee of Creditors (CoC) after its constitution by the Interim Resolution Professional (IRP)?

AThe Adjudicating Authority (NCLT).
BThe Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI).
CThe Interim Resolution Professional (IRP).
DThe largest financial creditor in the CoC.
IBC Moratorium 2 questions
Q235IBC Moratorium

During the period of moratorium declared under section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, which of the following actions is typically NOT prohibited against the corporate debtor?

AInstitution of suits or continuation of pending suits or proceedings.
BTransferring, encumbering, alienating or disposing of any of its assets.
CAny action to foreclose, recover or enforce any security interest.
DCompletion of existing, critical supply contracts essential for maintaining the corporate debtor as a going concern, if approved by IRP/RP.
Q236IBC Moratorium

Under the IBC, if an application for initiating CIRP against a corporate debtor is admitted by the NCLT, what is the immediate effect of the declaration of moratorium under section 14?

AAll directors of the corporate debtor are automatically removed.
BThe corporate debtor can no longer access its bank accounts.
CInstitution of new suits or continuation of pending suits/proceedings against the corporate debtor is generally prohibited.
DAll employees of the corporate debtor are temporarily suspended.
IBC Operational Debt 1 question
Q237IBC Operational Debt

Which of the following typically qualifies as "operational debt" under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016?

AA loan advanced by a bank to the corporate debtor.
BDues arising from the issue of debentures by the corporate debtor.
CA claim in respect of the provision of goods or services, including employment, or a debt in respect of dues arising under any law payable to Govt.
DInvestment made by a shareholder in the equity of the corporate debtor.
IBC Penalties 2 questions
Q238IBC Penalties

What is the maximum penalty that can be imposed by the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) on a corporate debtor if it willfully or negligently fails to provide access to its books of account to the Interim Resolution Professional (IRP)?

ARs. 1 lakh.
BRs. 10 lakhs.
CRs. 50 lakhs.
DRs. 1 crore.
Q239IBC Penalties

If an officer of a corporate debtor wilfully fails to deliver all books of account and records to the Interim Resolution Professional (IRP), what is the potential monetary penalty they may face under the IBC, in addition to possible imprisonment?

ANot less than Rs. 50,000 but not more than Rs. 5 lakhs.
BNot less than Rs. 1 lakh but which may extend to Rs. 1 crore.
CA fixed penalty of Rs. 10 lakhs.
DNot less than Rs. 25,000 but not more than Rs. 1 lakh.
IBC Preferential Transactions 1 question
Q240IBC Preferential Transactions

What is the "look-back" period from the insolvency commencement date for scrutinizing preferential transactions given to related parties (other than financial creditors who are not related parties) under the IBC?

A6 months
B1 year
C2 years
D3 years
IBC Process 13 questions
Q241IBC Process

Within how many days of its constitution must the first meeting of the Committee of Creditors (CoC) be conducted by the Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016?

AWithin 3 days.
BWithin 7 days.
CWithin 10 days.
DWithin 14 days.
Q242IBC Process

What is the maximum overall time limit, including any extensions, within which the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) must be mandatorily completed from the insolvency commencement date?

A180 days
B270 days
C330 days
D365 days
Q243IBC Process

Within how many days from the filing of an application for initiating the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) must the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) typically ascertain the existence of a default and admit or reject the application?

AWithin 7 days.
BWithin 14 days.
CWithin 21 days.
DWithin 30 days.
Q244IBC Process

If an operational creditor delivers a demand notice to a corporate debtor under the IBC, within how many days must the corporate debtor typically bring to the notice of the operational creditor the existence of any dispute or the details of payment made?

AWithin 5 days.
BWithin 10 days.
CWithin 15 days.
DWithin 20 days.
Q245IBC Process

When an application for initiating Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is filed, whose name is typically proposed to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) to act as the Interim Resolution Professional (IRP)?

AAn officer nominated by the Central Government.
BA person recommended by the board of the corporate debtor.
CAn insolvency professional proposed by the applicant (e.g., financial creditor or operational creditor).
DThe Official Liquidator attached to the NCLT.
Q246IBC Process

If the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) does not respond within a certain timeframe regarding the proposed appointment of an Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) (where IBBI confirmation is needed), what is generally considered to have happened?

AThe application for IRP appointment is deemed rejected.
BThe proposed IRP is deemed approved.
CThe NCLT must refer another name to IBBI.
DThe applicant must file a fresh application.
Q247IBC Process

In the case of replacement of an Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) by the Committee of Creditors (CoC), if the approval of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) for the new RP is not received within the stipulated time, what happens?

AThe CIRP is automatically paused until IBBI approval comes.
BThe existing IRP's appointment is terminated, and NCLT appoints a new one.
CThe existing IRP shall continue to function as IRP until the IBBI approval for the replacement is received.
DThe CoC's resolution to replace the IRP becomes void.
Q248IBC Process

When the NCLT initiates a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) against a corporate debtor upon an application by a financial creditor, within how many days must the NCLT typically ascertain the existence of a default?

AWithin 7 days of receiving the application.
BWithin 14 days of receiving the application.
CWithin 21 days of receiving the application.
DWithin 30 days of receiving the application.
Q249IBC Process

Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), is the date on which the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) admits an application for initiating CIRP the same as the "insolvency commencement date"?

ANo, insolvency commencement date is when the IRP is appointed.
BNo, it's the date when the default first occurred.
CYes, these two dates are generally considered the same.
DNo, it's the date when the CoC is formed.
Q250IBC Process

When a financial creditor files an application for initiating CIRP against a corporate debtor, whose name must they furnish with the application to the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) to act as the professional to conduct the process?

AA proposed Company Liquidator.
BA proposed Registered Valuer.
CA proposed Insolvency Resolution Professional (IRP).
DA proposed representative of the financial creditor.
Q251IBC Process

If an operational creditor sends a demand notice to a corporate debtor under the IBC, and the corporate debtor does not reply or dispute the claim within the stipulated 10 days, what is the immediate next step the operational creditor can typically take?

AFile a civil suit for recovery of the amount.
BInitiate arbitration proceedings as per the original contract.
CProceed with filing an application to the NCLT for initiating CIRP.
DSend a final reminder notice with a 7-day ultimatum.
Q252IBC Process

If an operational creditor (OC) serves a demand notice on a corporate debtor, and the corporate debtor neither makes payment nor provides notice of a pre-existing dispute within 10 days, what is the OC's primary recourse under the IBC?

AFile a criminal complaint for non-payment.
BImmediately seize the corporate debtor's assets.
CFile an application with the NCLT to initiate Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP).
DSend a legal notice for recovery through a civil court.
Q253IBC Process

If an application for initiating Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is filed with the NCLT and it is found to be incomplete or has defects, within what period should the NCLT typically intimate such defects to the applicant?

AWithin 2 days of receipt.
BWithin 3 days of receipt.
CWithin 7 days of receipt.
DWithin 14 days of receipt.
IBC Professional 1 question
Q254IBC Professional

What is a key eligibility criterion for an individual to be proposed as an Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) or Resolution Professional (RP) under the IBC, often compared to a director's status?

AThey must be a former director of a listed company.
BTheir eligibility criteria are similar to those required for an independent director of a company.
CThey must be an officer of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India.
DThey must have at least 15 years of experience in corporate restructuring.
IBC Public Announcement 1 question
Q255IBC Public Announcement

Within how many days from the appointment of an Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) must a public announcement of the initiation of Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) typically be made by the IRP?

AImmediately on appointment, but not later than 1 day.
BNot later than 3 days from the date of appointment.
CNot later than 7 days from the date of appointment.
DWithin 10 days from the insolvency commencement date.
IBC Quorum 1 question
Q256IBC Quorum

What is the general quorum requirement for a meeting of the Committee of Creditors (CoC) under the IBC, 2016?

AMembers of CoC representing at least 51% of the voting rights.
BMembers of CoC representing at least 33% of the voting rights, present in person or by video conferencing.
CAt least two financial creditors irrespective of their voting share.
DAll members of the CoC must be present.
IBC Related Party 1 question
Q257IBC Related Party

If a financial creditor who is a related party of the corporate debtor is a member of the Committee of Creditors (CoC), are they entitled to participate and vote in the meetings of the CoC?

AYes, they have full rights like any other financial creditor.
BYes, they can participate but cannot vote on resolutions concerning related party transactions.
CNo, such related party financial creditors generally do not have the right to participate or vote in CoC meetings.
DOnly if their debt constitutes more than 10% of the total financial debt.
IBC Resolution Plan 4 questions
Q258IBC Resolution Plan

Can a resolution plan approved by the Committee of Creditors (CoC) under IBC provide for the sale of all or part of the assets of the corporate debtor whether or not subject to any security interest?

ANo, assets subject to security interest cannot be sold under a resolution plan.
BYes, a resolution plan can provide for the sale of assets, including those with security interest, subject to specific provisions.
COnly unencumbered assets can be sold under a resolution plan.
DOnly if 100% of financial creditors agree to such a sale.
Q259IBC Resolution Plan

A resolution plan under IBC, once approved by the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT), is binding on which of the following parties?

AOnly on the corporate debtor and its employees.
BOnly on the members and creditors who voted in favour of the plan.
COn the corporate debtor, its employees, members, creditors (incl. CG, SG, local authority to whom debt is owed), guarantors and other stakeholders involved in the resolution plan.
DOnly on the resolution applicant and the financial creditors.
Q260IBC Resolution Plan

Under IBC, 2016, what is the typical "resolution plan" expected to achieve for a corporate debtor undergoing CIRP?

AOnly the orderly liquidation of the corporate debtor's assets.
BA plan for the revival and restructuring of the corporate debtor as a going concern, or a plan for its sale or merger.
COnly a schedule for repayment of debts to financial creditors.
DA scheme for distributing assets equally among all creditors.
Q261IBC Resolution Plan

In the context of IBC, if a resolution plan submitted by a resolution applicant provides for a term of more than one year for its implementation, what additional information is typically required to be included regarding its supervision?

AA list of guarantors for the implementation of the plan.
BA detailed schedule of quarterly review meetings with the CoC.
CDetails of the proposed supervisor for the implementation of the plan, if any.
DAn undertaking from the resolution applicant to provide monthly progress reports to the NCLT.
IBC Resolution Professional 3 questions
Q262IBC Resolution Professional

What is the minimum percentage of voting share in the Committee of Creditors (CoC) that is typically required to approve a resolution to replace the appointed Resolution Professional (RP) with another RP?

A51%
B66%
C75%
D90%
Q263IBC Resolution Professional

What is the primary role of the "Resolution Professional" (RP) appointed during the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) under the IBC?

ATo represent the interests of the corporate debtor's management.
BTo conduct the CIRP, manage the affairs of the corporate debtor, and invite and examine resolution plans.
CTo adjudicate disputes between creditors and the corporate debtor.
DTo provide legal advice to the Committee of Creditors.
Q264IBC Resolution Professional

Under the IBC, can the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) allow the replacement of a Resolution Professional (RP) if it is of the opinion that the RP is not performing their duties adequately, even if the Committee of Creditors has not proposed a replacement?

ANo, RP can only be replaced by a CoC resolution.
BYes, the NCLT has inherent powers to replace an RP for cause, after due process.
COnly if the IBBI recommends the replacement of the RP.
DYes, but only if the RP themself applies for recusal.
IBC Voluntary Liquidation 1 question
Q265IBC Voluntary Liquidation

If an application for voluntary liquidation of a corporate person is made under section 59 of the IBC, what is a key condition regarding its debts?

AThe corporate person must have no debts whatsoever.
BThe corporate person has not committed any default on its debts.
CAll secured debts must be fully paid, but unsecured debts can exist.
DThe corporate person must provide a guarantee for repayment of all debts within one year.
IBC Voting 1 question
Q266IBC Voting

For most decisions taken by the Committee of Creditors (CoC) during CIRP that require a simple majority, what is the minimum percentage of voting share of the financial creditors needed for approval?

ANot less than 33% of the voting share.
BNot less than 51% of the voting share.
CNot less than 66% of the voting share.
DNot less than 75% of the voting share.
IBC Waterfall 1 question
Q267IBC Waterfall

In the waterfall mechanism under section 53 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, where do government dues (Central and State, due for 2 years preceding liquidation commencement date) typically rank in priority of payment?

AAbove the dues of secured creditors who relinquish security.
BPari passu with workmen's dues for 24 months preceding liquidation.
CBelow the dues of unsecured financial creditors but above equity shareholders.
DAfter workmen's dues & secured creditors (who realize security or relinquish), and financial debts owed to unsecured creditors, but before remaining debts & dues.
IBC Withdrawal 1 question
Q268IBC Withdrawal

What percentage of voting share in the Committee of Creditors (CoC) is generally required for the approval of a withdrawal of an application admitted under section 7, 9, or 10 of the IBC?

A51% of voting share.
B66% of voting share.
C75% of voting share.
D90% of voting share.
IEPF 1 question
Q269IEPF

What is the primary objective of the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) established under the Companies Act, 2013?

ATo provide loans to small investors for share market investments.
BTo fund the operational expenses of SEBI and Stock Exchanges.
CFor the promotion of investors’ education, awareness, and protection, and for making refunds of unclaimed dividends, matured deposits/debentures, etc.
DTo act as a guarantor for public deposits in companies.
Inactive Company 2 questions
Q270Inactive Company

If a company consistently makes payments for its statutory ROC (Registrar of Companies) filings but conducts no other business operations or significant accounting transactions, what is its likely status?

AActive
BDormant Company (if applied for)
CDefunct
DInactive
Q271Inactive Company

A company has not made any significant accounting transactions during the last two financial years, except for payments made to the ROC for statutory filings. How would this company be classified?

AActive
BDormant
CInactive
DDefunct Company
Independent Directors 13 questions
Q272Independent Directors

At which junctures is an Independent Director (ID) required to submit a declaration of their independence to the company?

AOnly at the first Board meeting in which they participate as a director after appointment.
BAnnually, at the first Board meeting of each financial year only.
CAt their first Board meeting, at the first Board meeting of every financial year, and whenever any change in circumstances occurs which may affect their independence.
DOnly when there is a change in circumstances that might affect their status as an independent director.
Q273Independent Directors

Who is primarily responsible for evaluating the independence of an independent director within a company?

AThe Audit Committee exclusively.
BThe Nomination and Remuneration Committee.
CThe entire Board of Directors, excluding the director being evaluated.
DThe shareholders at a general meeting.
Q274Independent Directors

Can an individual who is related to a promoter of a company be appointed as an Independent Director in that same company or its subsidiary, holding, or associate company?

AYes, if the relationship is not pecuniary in nature.
BYes, if approved by a special resolution of shareholders.
CNo, such a person is generally not eligible to be appointed as an Independent Director.
DYes, but only in the subsidiary company, not the holding company itself.
Q275Independent Directors

H Ltd. is a listed company. S Ltd. is its wholly owned subsidiary and is also listed. Mr. A is a promoter of H Ltd. Mr. B is a relative of Mr. A. Can Mr. B be appointed as an Independent Director (ID) on the board of S Ltd.?

AYes, if S Ltd.'s board approves.
BYes, because S Ltd. is a separate listed entity.
CNo, an ID cannot be related to promoters/directors of the company, its holding, subsidiary, or associate.
DYes, if Mr. B has no pecuniary relationship with S Ltd. exceeding the prescribed limits.
Q276Independent Directors

Can an Independent Director (ID) be appointed for a third consecutive term in the same company immediately after completing two consecutive terms?

AYes, if shareholders approve by a special resolution.
BYes, if the Nomination and Remuneration Committee recommends it.
CNo, a cooling-off period is required before reappointment for a third term.
DNo, an ID can never serve more than two terms in the same company.
Q277Independent Directors

Can the same individual be appointed as an Independent Director (ID) simultaneously on the board of a listed holding company and its wholly owned subsidiary (which may or may not be listed)?

ANo, an ID cannot serve on both boards simultaneously.
BYes, there is no restriction on an ID serving on both boards, provided they meet independence criteria for both.
CYes, but only if the subsidiary is also a listed company.
DOnly if the ID is not a chairperson of any committee in the holding company.
Q278Independent Directors

T Ltd. is a listed entity and also a wholly owned subsidiary of A Ltd. (which may or may not be listed). Is T Ltd. required to appoint Independent Directors (IDs) on its Board?

ANo, as it is a wholly owned subsidiary.
BNo, if its parent company A Ltd. already has Independent Directors.
CYes, because it is a listed entity, irrespective of being a wholly owned subsidiary.
DYes, but only if its turnover exceeds a specific threshold.
Q279Independent Directors

What is the general limit on the number of listed entities in which an individual can serve as an Independent Director, assuming they are not a full-time Managing Director or Whole-Time Director in any listed entity?

AMaximum of 3 listed entities.
BMaximum of 5 listed entities.
CMaximum of 7 listed entities.
DMaximum of 10 listed entities.
Q280Independent Directors

An Independent Director (ID) of Company X served a first term of 3 years and a second term of 4 years. Can this ID be reappointed for a third term in Company X immediately thereafter?

AYes, for a final term of 3 years with shareholder approval.
BNo, because the second term exceeded the typical 5-year limit for a single term.
CNo, an ID cannot serve more than two consecutive terms without a cooling-off period.
DYes, if the company is a small company.
Q281Independent Directors

An unlisted public company has a turnover of Rs. 420 crores in the immediately preceding financial year and currently has one Independent Director (ID) on its Board, who is also the Chairperson. How many additional IDs does it need to appoint to meet the minimum statutory requirement?

ANone, one ID is sufficient as Chairperson is ID.
BOne additional ID.
CTwo additional IDs.
DThree additional IDs.
Q282Independent Directors

Can an Independent Director of a listed company be granted stock options of that company?

AYes, as part of their remuneration package if approved by shareholders.
BYes, but only if granted at fair market value.
CNo, Independent Directors are generally prohibited from having stock options in the company.
DOnly if they have served on the board for more than 5 years.
Q283Independent Directors

In the first Board Meeting of a financial year, which directors are required to give a declaration of their independence (if applicable to them)?

AOnly newly appointed Independent Directors.
BOnly the Chairperson of the Board if they are an Independent Director.
CAll directors who are appointed as Independent Directors, including any Small Shareholder Director serving as an ID.
DOnly Independent Directors who are part of the Audit Committee.
Q284Independent Directors

If a company has an existing Independent Director (ID) whose first term is expiring, and the Board proposes to re-appoint them for a second consecutive term, what specific approval is required from the members?

AOrdinary Resolution.
BSpecial Resolution.
CUnanimous Resolution of all members present.
DNo member approval needed if Board and NRC approve.
Inspection Investigation 2 questions
Q285Inspection Investigation

During an investigation into a company's affairs, is a banker of the company obligated to provide information related to the company to the Central Government or an inspector appointed by it?

ANo, bankers are protected by confidentiality laws.
BYes, but only if the company consents to the disclosure.
CYes, but only information directly related to the company or body corporate under investigation.
DOnly if a court order specifically directs the banker to disclose.
Q286Inspection Investigation

If an inspector seizes books and papers of a company during an inspection or investigation, is the company or its representatives entitled to take copies of these seized documents?

ANo, access is restricted until the investigation is complete.
BYes, the company is entitled to take copies of the seized books and papers.
COnly if the Tribunal passes an order permitting copies.
DOnly for documents that are more than 3 years old.
Inspection Rights 1 question
Q287Inspection Rights

If a member wishes to inspect the employment agreement or service contract of a Managing Director of a public company, can the company deny such inspection by stating that no formal written agreement exists, even if the MD is being remunerated?

AYes, if no written agreement exists, there is nothing to inspect.
BNo, the company must create a summary of terms if no written agreement exists for inspection.
CYes, companies can deny inspection of MD's service contract as it's confidential, but terms must be in explanatory statement if vote needed.
DOnly if the MD is also a promoter of the company.
Interim Dividend 1 question
Q288Interim Dividend

What is the maximum period for which an interim dividend, once declared by the Board of Directors, must be deposited in a separate bank account before it is paid to shareholders?

AWithin 3 days of declaration.
BWithin 5 days of declaration.
CWithin 7 days of declaration.
DWithin 10 days of declaration.
Investigation Obligation 1 question
Q289Investigation Obligation

Are directors or employees of a company who have left their employment before an investigation into the company's affairs commences still liable to provide information and assistance to the investigating authority?

ANo, their liability ends upon cessation of employment.
BOnly if they left employment less than one year before the investigation started.
CYes, they are still under an obligation to provide relevant information and assistance.
DOnly if they were specifically named in the investigation order.
Investigation Powers 1 question
Q290Investigation Powers

On what grounds can the Central Government order an investigation into the affairs of a company under section 210(1)(b), related to an application by members?

AIf any 10 members apply, regardless of shareholding.
BIf members holding not less than 1/10th of total voting power apply.
CIf the company's net worth has eroded by 50%.
DOnly if the company has defaulted in filing annual returns for 3 consecutive years.
KMP 1 question
Q291KMP

A person is a qualified Company Secretary. Can this individual hold the positions of both Chief Financial Officer (CFO) and Compliance Officer in the same company simultaneously?

ANo, these roles must be held by two different individuals.
BYes, if the company is a private company with turnover less than Rs. 200 crores.
CYes, there is no explicit bar, provided the individual is capable of fulfilling both roles diligently.
DOnly with prior approval from the Central Government.
LODR 3 questions
Q292LODR

If a listed company has an unlisted material subsidiary (as per SEBI LODR criteria), what is the minimum requirement concerning the listed company's independent directors (IDs) on the board of this material subsidiary?

ANo ID from the holding company is required on the subsidiary's board.
BAt least one ID from the holding company must be a director on the board of the material subsidiary.
CAt least half of the board of the material subsidiary must be IDs from the holding company.
DThe Chairman of the material subsidiary must be an ID from the holding company.
Q293LODR

How many days prior notice must a listed company typically give to the Stock Exchange before its Board Meeting if the agenda includes a proposal for buy-back of securities?

AAt least 2 working days in advance.
BAt least 5 working days in advance.
CAt least 7 calendar days in advance.
DAt least 11 calendar days in advance.
Q294LODR

Within how many days must a listed company normally file information regarding investor grievances with the Stock Exchange for a given quarter?

AWithin 7 days from the end of the quarter.
BWithin 15 days from the end of the quarter.
CWithin 21 days from the end of the quarter.
DWithin 30 days from the end of the quarter.
Liquidation Notice 1 question
Q295Liquidation Notice

A bank intends to initiate liquidation proceedings against a company that defaulted on a loan. The bank sends a notice of default only to the company's registered office. Is this notice considered fully compliant for initiating such proceedings?

AYes, serving notice at the registered office is sufficient.
BNo, the notice must also be published in a national newspaper.
CNo, the notice should generally be served at its registered office and also on its directors or Board.
DNo, the notice must also be sent to the ROC and the Central Government.
Loans Investments 1 question
Q296Loans Investments

If a company decides to make investments or give loans/guarantees beyond certain limits as specified in section 186 of the Companies Act, what specific type of Board approval is typically required for such transactions?

AResolution passed by circulation by majority of directors.
BResolution passed at a Board meeting with the consent of all directors present at the meeting.
CResolution passed at a Board meeting by a simple majority of directors present.
DUnanimous resolution of all directors of the company, whether present or not.
Loans To Directors 4 questions
Q297Loans To Directors

If a director incurs an obligation in connection with a loan made to them by the company, or a guarantee/security provided by the company for a loan taken by the director, what specific approval is generally required under section 185?

AUnanimous Board resolution.
BOrdinary resolution of members.
CSpecial resolution of members.
DApproval from the Audit Committee only.
Q298Loans To Directors

Which of the following types of loans or guarantees given by a company to its director or a person in whom the director is interested is generally permissible under section 185, subject to specific conditions?

AAny loan given to a director for personal use without any conditions.
BA loan made by a company to its Managing Director as part of the conditions of service extended by the company to all its employees and approved by members by SR.
CA guarantee given for a loan taken by a director for investing in another private company.
DA loan given to a holding company of the director.
Q299Loans To Directors

Can a private company, which is not a subsidiary of a public company, give a loan to one of its directors if it is approved by a special resolution of its members and the director uses the loan for their principal business activities?

AYes, if these conditions are met, section 185 allows it.
BNo, private companies cannot give loans to their directors under any circumstances.
COnly if the loan amount is less than Rs. 50 lakhs.
DOnly if the company's primary business is lending money.
Q300Loans To Directors

A company has a policy of providing an interest-free loan to its employees for specific welfare purposes. If such a loan is provided to a Whole-Time Director under this uniformly applicable employee welfare scheme, which has also been approved by the members by a special resolution, is this permissible under section 185?

ANo, loans to directors are strictly prohibited.
BYes, as it's an interest-free loan for welfare.
CYes, it can be an exception if it's part of service conditions extended to all employees and approved by SR.
DOnly if the loan amount is below Rs. 10 lakhs.
Managerial Appointments 4 questions
Q301Managerial Appointments

Under which of the following circumstances is an individual generally not eligible for appointment as a managing director (MD) or whole-time director (WTD) or a manager of a company?

AIf they are between 65 and 70 years of age.
BIf they have been detained for any period under the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 (COFEPOSA).
CIf they are a director in more than 10 other companies.
DIf they are not a resident of India for the past 6 months.
Q302Managerial Appointments

What is the maximum age for a person to be appointed or continue as a Managing Director, Whole-time Director, or Manager of a company without requiring a special resolution from shareholders for such appointment/continuation?

A60 years
B65 years
C70 years
DThere is no age limit specified.
Q303Managerial Appointments

A company wishes to appoint Mr. Greg, aged 75 years, as its Managing Director due to his expertise. What is the primary requirement for such an appointment to be valid?

AApproval from the Board of Directors by a simple majority.
BApproval from the members by an ordinary resolution.
CApproval from the members by a special resolution.
DNo special approval needed if he is physically fit.
Q304Managerial Appointments

Can the Board of Directors of a company appoint a Managing Director (MD) for their entire lifetime?

AYes, if approved by a special resolution of members.
BYes, if the Articles of Association specifically permit it.
CNo, an MD cannot be appointed for a lifetime; appointments are for a specified term.
DOnly if the company is a private limited company.
Managerial Remuneration 6 questions
Q305Managerial Remuneration

If a director has received remuneration in excess of the limits prescribed under the Companies Act, 2013, is it possible for the company to waive the recovery of such excess amount, and if so, under what condition and time limit?

ANo, waiver is not possible; the amount must be refunded.
BYes, by passing an Ordinary Resolution within 1 year of such payment.
CYes, by passing a Special Resolution within 2 years from the date the sum becomes refundable.
DYes, with the approval of the Central Government at any time.
Q306Managerial Remuneration

A company has an effective capital between ?5 crores and ?100 crores and is facing inadequacy of profits. According to Schedule V of the Companies Act, 2013, what is the typical maximum yearly remuneration that can be paid to its Managing Director/Whole-Time Director/Manager?

A30 lakhs
B60 lakhs
C84 lakhs
D120 lakhs
Q307Managerial Remuneration

A company's net profit as per section 198 of the Companies Act, 2013, is Rs. 200 crores. What is the maximum permissible overall managerial remuneration (excluding sitting fees) that can be paid by the company without Central Government approval, if it has more than one managerial person?

A5% of net profit (Rs. 10 crores)
B10% of net profit (Rs. 20 crores)
C11% of net profit (Rs. 22 crores)
D15% of net profit (Rs. 30 crores)
Q308Managerial Remuneration

If a company has only one director who is also the Managing Director, what is the maximum managerial remuneration that can typically be paid to this director as a percentage of the company's net profits, without Central Government approval (assuming the company has adequate profits)?

A3% of the net profits.
B5% of the net profits.
C10% of the net profits.
D11% of the net profits.
Q309Managerial Remuneration

A listed public company has no Managing Director or Whole-Time Director. What is the maximum permissible remuneration that can be paid to all its non-executive directors (including independent directors), excluding sitting fees, as a percentage of its net profits, if approved by a special resolution?

A1% of the net profits.
B3% of the net profits.
C5% of the net profits.
D11% of the net profits.
Q310Managerial Remuneration

If a company has an effective capital of Rs. 60 crores and reports inadequate profits, what is the typical maximum yearly remuneration payable to its Non-Executive Directors (NEDs), excluding independent directors and sitting fees, as per Schedule V of the Companies Act, 2013?

ARs. 12 lakhs per NED.
BRs. 24 lakhs in aggregate for all such NEDs.
CRs. 12 lakhs in aggregate for all such NEDs.
DRs. 60 lakhs per NED.
Managerial Term 1 question
Q311Managerial Term

What is the maximum term for which a Managing Director (MD), Whole-Time Director (WTD), or Manager can be appointed or re-appointed by a company at any one time?

AThree years at a time.
BFive years at a time.
CSeven years at a time.
DTen years at a time.
Meeting Minutes 1 question
Q312Meeting Minutes

Within what period must the minutes of proceedings of general meetings, Board meetings, and other meetings be entered in the minute books, and by whom should they be signed?

AWithin 15 days; signed by any director present.
BWithin 30 days; signed by the chairman of that meeting or the chairman of the next succeeding meeting.
CWithin 45 days; signed by the Company Secretary.
DWithin 60 days; signed by all directors present at the meeting.
Meeting Notice 1 question
Q313Meeting Notice

A company sends a notice for a general meeting 15 days before the meeting date. The notice mentions options to vote in person or by proxy but does not mention postal ballot options (assuming postal ballot is applicable). What is the validity of this notice?

AValid, as 15 days is sufficient for proxy arrangement.
BValid, if a shorter notice was agreed to by the requisite majority of members.
CInvalid, primarily because the notice period is insufficient (generally 21 clear days) and also for omitting postal ballot info if applicable.
DInvalid, only because it omitted postal ballot information; the 15-day period is acceptable.
Meeting Quorum 2 questions
Q314Meeting Quorum

When determining the quorum for a general meeting of a public company, how are proxies generally counted?

AProxies are counted for the purpose of quorum.
BProxies are counted for quorum only if the Articles specifically permit.
CProxies are not counted for the purpose of quorum.
DProxies are counted, but only one proxy can represent multiple members for quorum.
Q315Meeting Quorum

What is the typical quorum required for a general meeting of a private company, if its Articles of Association do not specify otherwise?

A1 member personally present.
B2 members personally present.
C5 members personally present.
D10% of the total number of members.
Member Rights 1 question
Q316Member Rights

What is the general right of members of a company regarding the inspection of statutory registers like the Register of Members, Register of Debenture Holders, and copies of Annual Returns?

AInspection is only allowed with prior approval of the Board of Directors.
BInspection is allowed only to members holding more than 10% of shares.
CMembers generally have the right to inspect these documents free of cost during business hours, subject to reasonable restrictions.
DInspection is only permitted 14 days before the Annual General Meeting.
Member Vs Shareholder 1 question
Q317Member Vs Shareholder

In the context of Indian Company Law, which statement accurately distinguishes a "member" from a "shareholder" of a company limited by shares?

A"Member" and "shareholder" are always perfectly interchangeable terms.
BA person becomes a shareholder only upon full payment of shares, while a member can hold partly paid shares.
CA shareholder holds shares, while a member is a person whose name is entered in the register of members. One can be a shareholder (e.g., via transfer) before becoming a member.
DOnly individuals can be members, while companies can be shareholders.
Memorandum Alteration 1 question
Q318Memorandum Alteration

A company proposes to alter its objects clause in the Memorandum of Association. Which type of resolution is required to be passed by the members for this alteration?

AOrdinary Resolution.
BSpecial Resolution.
CUnanimous Resolution.
DBoard Resolution with majority shareholder consent.
Mergers 1 question
Q319Mergers

If an Indian company wishes to merge with a foreign company, and the CEO contends it's not possible even with Central Government approval, is this contention correct regarding the approving authority?

AYes, cross-border mergers are entirely prohibited for Indian companies.
BNo, Central Government approval is sufficient for such mergers.
CNo, such mergers are permissible with approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
DNo, such mergers only need approval from the NCLT and the respective foreign authority.
Minority Shareholding 1 question
Q320Minority Shareholding

Under section 236 (purchase of minority shareholding), if an acquirer offers a price for shares held by minority shareholders and these shares are not disposed of by them within the stipulated time, for how long will the amount payable for such shares typically be disbursed or held for them?

A6 months from the offer date.
B1 year from the offer date.
C2 years from the offer date.
DIndefinitely until claimed.
NCLT 1 question
Q321NCLT

What is the time limit within which the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) can rectify any mistake apparent from the record in an order passed by it, on its own motion or on an application?

A1 year from the date of the order.
B2 years from the date of the order.
C3 years from the date of the order.
D6 months from the date of the order.
NCLT Appeals 1 question
Q322NCLT Appeals

If an appeal has been preferred to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) against an order of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), can the NCLT still rectify its original order under section 420 within the usual two-year limit?

AYes, NCLT can rectify its order at any time within two years, regardless of an appeal.
BNo, once an appeal is preferred to NCLAT, the NCLT generally cannot amend or rectify the appealed order.
CYes, but only for clerical or arithmetical mistakes, not substantive ones.
DOnly if the NCLAT grants specific permission to the NCLT for rectification.
NFRA 1 question
Q323NFRA

If the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) has initiated an investigation against an auditor for professional misconduct, can any other institute or body simultaneously initiate or continue any proceedings against that auditor for the same misconduct?

AYes, parallel proceedings by other bodies are always permitted.
BNo, once NFRA initiates an investigation, no other institute or body shall initiate or continue any proceeding in such matters of misconduct.
COnly if the misconduct also involves criminal charges.
DOnly with the prior approval of the Central Government.
NRC 1 question
Q324NRC

What is the primary role of a "Nomination and Remuneration Committee" (NRC) in a company where its constitution is mandatory?

ATo oversee the company's investment strategies.
BTo recommend persons for directorship, identify persons qualified to become directors, and formulate policy on remuneration for directors, KMP, and other employees.
CTo monitor and resolve grievances of the company's security holders.
DTo approve all related party transactions of the company.
National Defence Fund 1 question
Q325National Defence Fund

What is the general limit on contributions a company can make to the National Defence Fund or any other Fund approved by the Central Government for the purpose of national defence, and what approval is needed?

AUp to 5% of average net profits of preceding 3 FYs, with Board approval.
BUp to Rs. 1 crore per financial year, with Ordinary Resolution.
CThere is no limit on the amount, and it can be approved by the Board or by the company in general meeting.
DUp to 10% of paid-up share capital, with Special Resolution.
Net Profit Calculation 2 questions
Q326Net Profit Calculation

For calculating net profits under section 198 for managerial remuneration, how is any profit arising from the sale of an undertaking or any part thereof typically treated?

AIt is fully included in the calculation of net profits.
BIt is fully excluded from the calculation of net profits.
C50% of such profit is included.
DIt is included only if the sale is part of the company's ordinary business.
Q327Net Profit Calculation

When calculating net profit under section 198 for managerial remuneration, how is profit on the sale of an old office furniture (a fixed asset) treated if its sale proceeds exceed its written down value (WDV) but are less than its original cost?

AThe entire profit (Sale Proceed - WDV) is included.
BThe entire profit is excluded as it's a capital profit.
COnly the amount exceeding original cost is excluded.
DProfit up to original cost less WDV is included; any excess over cost is excluded.
Net Worth 1 question
Q328Net Worth

Which of the following is generally NOT included when calculating the "Net Worth" of a company as per the Companies Act, 2013?

APaid-up share capital.
BAll reserves created out of profits and securities premium account.
CDebit balance of profit and loss account and accumulated losses.
DMiscellaneous expenditure not written off.
Nidhi Auditors 1 question
Q329Nidhi Auditors

In a Nidhi company that has appointed an audit firm for a term of five consecutive years, can the same audit firm be re-appointed for another term of five consecutive years immediately thereafter?

ANo, there must be a cooling-off period of 5 years for the audit firm.
BYes, a Nidhi company is permitted to reappoint an audit firm for a second consecutive term of five years.
COnly if the Nidhi company's net owned funds are below Rs. 10 crores.
DOnly with prior approval from the Regional Director.
Nidhi Company 11 questions
Q330Nidhi Company

What is the maximum loan amount a Nidhi company can provide to its members if its total deposits are less than ₹2 crores?

A₹1 lakh
B₹2 lakhs
C₹5 lakhs
D₹7.5 lakhs
Q331Nidhi Company

X and Y jointly hold shares in a Nidhi company. In the application form, X's name appears first. However, in the company's register of members, Y's name appears first for the joint holding. To whom can the Nidhi company grant a loan against these shares?

ATo X, as his name was first on the application.
BTo Y, as his name appears first in the register of members.
CTo both X and Y jointly.
DTo neither, as loans against jointly held shares are restricted.
Q332Nidhi Company

What is the maximum amount of deposits a Nidhi company can accept in relation to its Net Owned Funds (NOF)?

AUp to 10 times its NOF.
BUp to 15 times its NOF.
CUp to 20 times its NOF.
DUp to 25 times its NOF.
Q333Nidhi Company

Which of the following activities can a Nidhi company primarily undertake with its members as per the Nidhi Rules, 2014?

AOpen current accounts and provide overdraft facilities.
BEngage in hire-purchase financing for consumer durables.
COpen savings accounts and accept fixed/recurring deposits.
DInvest in the shares of other body corporates.
Q334Nidhi Company

What is the mandatory cooling-off period for a director of a Nidhi company before they can be re-appointed as a director in the same Nidhi company after completing their term (e.g., ten consecutive years)?

A1 year
B2 years
C3 years
D5 years
Q335Nidhi Company

Can a private limited company become a member of a Nidhi company?

AYes, if its main objects are similar to that of the Nidhi company.
BYes, but only if it holds less than 10% of the Nidhi's share capital.
CNo, only individuals can be admitted as members of a Nidhi company.
DYes, with prior approval from the Registrar of Companies.
Q336Nidhi Company

What is the maximum rate of dividend that can generally be declared by a Nidhi company in any financial year as per the Nidhi Rules, 2014?

ANot exceeding 15%
BNot exceeding 20%
CNot exceeding 25%
DNot exceeding 30% or the rate prescribed by RBI, whichever is lower.
Q337Nidhi Company

A Nidhi company has Net Owned Funds (NOF) of Rs. 25 lakhs and has already accepted deposits amounting to Rs. 1.5 crores. What is the maximum amount of additional deposits it can accept as per Nidhi Rules?

ARs. 1 crore
BRs. 2.5 crores
CRs. 3.5 crores
DRs. 5 crores
Q338Nidhi Company

Which of the following businesses is a Nidhi company generally prohibited from transacting?

AAccepting fixed and recurring deposits from its members.
BProviding loans to its members against security of gold or immovable property.
COpening savings accounts for its members.
DCarrying on the business of chit fund or hire purchase finance.
Q339Nidhi Company

What is the minimum percentage of its outstanding deposits that a Nidhi company must maintain as unencumbered term deposits with a scheduled commercial bank or post office?

A5% of outstanding deposits.
B10% of outstanding deposits.
C15% of outstanding deposits.
D20% of outstanding deposits.
Q340Nidhi Company

In a Nidhi company, a minor, Rudra, is proposed for membership, and a deposit of Rs. 1,00,000 is to be made in his name by his father, Mr. Kshitij, who is already a member. What is the correct legal position?

ARudra cannot become a member, nor can a deposit be accepted in his name.
BRudra can become a member, and the deposit can be accepted.
CThe deposit can be accepted in Rudra's name (operated by guardian), but Rudra (a minor) cannot be made a member.
DRudra can become a member only if the deposit amount is less than Rs. 50,000.
OPC 1 question
Q341OPC

In the context of a One Person Company (OPC), what is a key eligibility criterion for an individual to be a member or a nominee for the sole member?

AMust be a Person Resident Outside India.
BMust be an Indian citizen and resident in India.
CCan be any individual, including a minor represented by a guardian.
DMust be a body corporate.
Officer In Default 1 question
Q342Officer In Default

An "Officer who is in default" under the Companies Act, 2013, for any provision which enacts that an officer of the company who is in default shall be liable to any penalty or punishment, generally includes:

AOnly the Managing Director and Whole-Time Directors.
BAny director who is aware of the contravention and does not object.
COnly the Company Secretary if appointed.
DAny person under whose directions the Board is accustomed to act, or any director aware of contravention who doesn't object, or KMP.
Oppression Mismanagement 4 questions
Q343Oppression Mismanagement

A company has 1000 members. A group of 201 members holding 15% of the issued share capital files an application to the NCLT alleging oppression and mismanagement. Is their application maintainable based on these numbers?

ANo, they need at least 250 members.
BNo, their shareholding must be at least 20%.
CYes, as they meet both the minimum number of members and the shareholding criteria.
DYes, as they meet at least one of the alternative eligibility criteria.
Q344Oppression Mismanagement

Is the act of writing off a significant amount of bad debts by the management, coupled with a consistent policy of not declaring dividends despite profits, necessarily considered an act of oppression against members?

AYes, both actions together always constitute oppression.
BOnly the non-payment of dividends is oppression.
COnly the writing off of bad debts if done negligently is oppression.
DNot necessarily; these actions require further evidence of being burdensome, harsh, or wrongful to be oppression.
Q345Oppression Mismanagement

For a company not having a share capital, what is the minimum number of members required to make an application to the Tribunal for relief in cases of oppression or mismanagement under section 244?

AOne-tenth of the total number of its members.
BOne-fifth of the total number of its members.
CAny 50 members.
DAny 100 members.
Q346Oppression Mismanagement

For the purpose of applying to the NCLT for relief in cases of oppression or mismanagement under section 241, what is the eligibility criterion for members of a company not having a share capital?

AAny 50 members.
BOne-tenth of the total number of its members.
COne-fifth of the total number of its members.
DAny member who has been so for at least one year.
Partnership Limits 1 question
Q347Partnership Limits

What is the maximum number of partners a firm or association of persons can generally have if it is carrying on a business for profit, beyond which it must be registered as a company under the Companies Act or formed under another special law?

A20 partners
B50 partners
C100 partners
DNo limit if it's a professional firm.
Political Contributions 2 questions
Q348Political Contributions

If a company makes a political contribution in contravention of section 182 of the Companies Act, 2013, what is the penalty imposable on the company itself?

ATwice the amount so contributed.
BThree times the amount so contributed.
CUp to five times the amount so contributed.
DA fixed penalty of ?1 crore.
Q349Political Contributions

What are the approved methods of payment if a company wishes to make a donation to a political party under section 182 of the Companies Act, 2013?

ACash, bearer cheque, or any electronic mode.
BOnly through an account payee cheque or account payee bank draft.
CThrough an account payee cheque, account payee bank draft, or use of electronic clearing system through a bank account, or through an electoral trust.
DAny method approved by the Board of Directors.
Postal Ballot 1 question
Q350Postal Ballot

Which of the following businesses must mandatorily be transacted only by means of postal ballot (including electronic voting) for a company that is required to comply with postal ballot rules?

AAppointment of a managing director whose appointment requires shareholder approval.
BDeclaration of interim dividend by the Board.
CAlteration of the Articles of Association for a private company.
DGiving loans or extending guarantees or providing security in excess of limits specified under section 186.
Private Company 1 question
Q351Private Company

What is the maximum number of members a private limited company (other than a One Person Company) can have?

A50 members
B100 members
C200 members
DNo limit for private companies.
Producer Company 1 question
Q352Producer Company

What is the maximum number of members that a producer company, as defined under the Companies Act, 2013 (referencing provisions of Companies Act, 1956 for producer companies), can have?

A50 members.
B200 members.
C500 members.
DThere is no specific upper limit on the number of members for a producer company.
Proportional Representation 2 questions
Q353Proportional Representation

If a company's Articles of Association provide for the appointment of directors by the principle of proportional representation, what is the minimum proportion of the total number of directors that must be so appointed, and for what typical maximum tenure can such an appointment be made at a time?

AOne-third of directors; for 1 year.
BOne-half of directors; for 2 years.
CNot less than two-thirds of directors; for 3 years.
DAll directors excluding independent directors; for 5 years.
Q354Proportional Representation

If a company's Articles of Association allow for the appointment of directors by proportional representation using cumulative voting, is such a method of appointment valid under the Companies Act, 2013?

ANo, cumulative voting is not a recognized method for director appointments in India.
BYes, such a system is valid if provided for in the Articles for appointing not less than two-thirds of the directors.
COnly valid for private companies.
DOnly valid if approved by the Central Government.
Prospectus Liability 1 question
Q355Prospectus Liability

If a company provides misleading information in its prospectus and an investor subscribes to securities based on it and suffers a loss, who among the following would generally NOT be liable for such misstatement?

AEvery director of the company at the time of issue of the prospectus.
BEvery promoter of the company.
CAn expert whose statement is included with their consent, only for their statement.
DA person whose name appears in the prospectus only as a member of the company.
ROC Filings 2 questions
Q356ROC Filings

Which of the following resolutions, once passed by a company, generally requires filing with the Registrar of Companies (ROC) using Form MGT-14?

AA Board resolution for approving quarterly financial results.
BA resolution passed at a meeting of a committee of directors.
CAll special resolutions passed by the company.
DA resolution for the appointment of a non-executive director.
Q357ROC Filings

Is a private company required to file Form MGT-14 with the ROC for a Board resolution passed for the acceptance of deposits from its members under section 73(2)?

ANo, MGT-14 is not required for private companies for any Board resolution.
BNo, only if the deposits exceed its net worth.
CYes, if the private company accepts deposits from members under section 73(2).
DYes, but only if the amount accepted is more than Rs. 1 crore.
ROC Inquiry 1 question
Q358ROC Inquiry

If the Registrar of Companies (ROC) issues a notice to a company and the information provided by the company is found to be inadequate or unsatisfactory, what action can the ROC take next?

AImmediately initiate striking off the company's name.
BImpose a penalty without further inquiry.
CCall upon the company to furnish further information or explanation in writing via another notice.
DRefer the matter directly to the SFIO for investigation.
ROC Inspection 1 question
Q359ROC Inspection

Under section 206 of the Companies Act, if the Registrar of Companies (ROC) has called for information or explanation from a company and it is not furnished within the specified time, what further action can the ROC take?

AThe ROC must immediately refer the matter for SFIO investigation.
BThe ROC can only impose a monetary penalty for non-furnishing.
CThe ROC may, by another written notice, call on the company to produce such documents for inspection as the ROC may require.
DThe ROC must apply to the NCLT for an order compelling the company to furnish information.
ROC Investigation 1 question
Q360ROC Investigation

If the Registrar of Companies (ROC) suspects fraudulent activities in a company after an initial inquiry (e.g., under section 206), and believes a more detailed investigation is required, to whom should the ROC typically refer the matter or seek authorization for such further investigation?

AThe National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
BThe Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) directly.
CThe Central Government.
DThe company's statutory auditors.
ROC Strike Off 3 questions
Q361ROC Strike Off

If the ROC sends a notice (Form STK-1) to a company and its directors of its intention to strike off the company's name, within what period must the company send its representations, if any?

AWithin 15 days from the date of the notice.
BWithin 30 days from the date of the notice.
CWithin 45 days from the date of the notice.
DWithin 60 days from the date of the notice.
Q362ROC Strike Off

Before a company applies to the NCLT for the removal of its name from the Register of Companies (striking off), what is a key condition regarding its existing liabilities?

AAll liabilities must be converted into equity.
BLiabilities can exist but must be less than 50% of total assets.
CThe company must have extinguished all its liabilities.
DLiabilities related to employees must be settled; other liabilities can remain.
Q363ROC Strike Off

Under section 248 of the Companies Act, 2013, which of the following is a specific ground on which the Registrar of Companies (ROC) may remove the name of a company from the Register of Companies?

AThe company has made losses for three consecutive years.
BThe company has not commenced its business within one year of its incorporation.
CThe company has changed its registered office without ROC approval.
DThe company has less than the statutory minimum number of directors for 3 months.
Register Of Members 1 question
Q364Register Of Members

What is the maximum aggregate period for which a company can close its Register of Members (or Register of Debenture-holders or other security holders) in any one year?

A30 days in aggregate.
B45 days in aggregate, with no single closure exceeding 30 days.
C60 days in aggregate, with no single closure exceeding 45 days.
D90 days in aggregate, with no single closure exceeding 30 days.
Registered Office Change 1 question
Q365Registered Office Change

A public company wishes to change its registered office from one state (e.g., Maharashtra) to another state (e.g., Gujarat). Which of the following approvals is primarily required for this change, in addition to a special resolution by members?

AApproval from the Registrar of Companies of both states.
BConfirmation by the Regional Director.
CApproval from the High Court of the original state.
DNo other approval needed beyond the special resolution.
Registered Valuer 3 questions
Q366Registered Valuer

Can a person who is not a resident in India be eligible for registration as a Registered Valuer under the Companies Act, 2013?

AYes, if they pass the valuation examination conducted in India.
BYes, if they partner with an Indian resident who is a Registered Valuer.
CNo, only a person resident in India is eligible.
DYes, with special permission from the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI).
Q367Registered Valuer

When a Registered Valuer (RV) is appointed to conduct a valuation under the Companies Act, 2013, are they bound to make the valuation strictly as per the terms of the contract or engagement letter with the company?

AYes, the contract terms are paramount.
BYes, unless the valuation standards provide for a lower value.
CNo, the RV must conduct the valuation as per the prescribed valuation standards, irrespective of conflicting contract terms.
DNo, they must follow internationally accepted valuation principles only.
Q368Registered Valuer

The MD of a company wants to purchase a machine from Director A. The MD appoints Mr. B as a Registered Valuer (RV). Mr. A had purchased the same machine 48 months ago from a partnership firm in which Mr. B's spouse was a partner at that time. Is Mr. B's appointment as RV valid in this scenario?

AYes, as the spouse's partnership was 48 months prior.
BYes, if Mr. B declares this past association.
CNo, due to potential conflict of interest arising from the past association of his spouse with the seller of the asset being valued for a director.
DOnly if the machine's value is below Rs. 1 crore.
Related Party Transaction 1 question
Q369Related Party Transaction

A director's spouse is a partner in "Supplier Pvt. Ltd." Transactions between the director's company ("Buyer Ltd.") and "Supplier Pvt. Ltd." exceed 10% of Buyer Ltd.'s annual turnover. Is this a related party transaction (RPT) requiring specific approvals beyond just Board approval, assuming it's not in ordinary course of business and not at arm's length?

ANo, as Supplier Pvt. Ltd. is a private company.
BYes, but only Audit Committee approval is needed.
CYes, this would likely be a material RPT requiring Audit Committee, Board, and shareholder (ordinary resolution) approval.
DNo, if the director is not involved in negotiating the transaction.
Resolution By Circulation 1 question
Q370Resolution By Circulation

Is a specific quorum of directors required for passing a resolution by circulation (RBC)?

AYes, the same quorum as required for a Board meeting.
BYes, at least two-thirds of the total strength of directors.
CNo, quorum is not applicable for RBC; approval by the required majority of directors entitled to vote is sufficient.
DNo, but the RBC must be ratified at the next Board meeting with quorum.
Rights Issue 1 question
Q371Rights Issue

What is the primary purpose of a "Rights Issue" of shares by a company?

ATo offer shares to the general public for the first time.
BTo offer new shares to its existing shareholders in proportion to their current shareholding.
CTo issue shares to employees under an employee stock option scheme.
DTo issue shares to strategic investors or venture capital funds.
SBO 2 questions
Q372SBO

If a person is required to declare their significant beneficial ownership (SBO) in a company under section 90, to whom should they primarily make this declaration?

AThe Registrar of Companies (ROC) directly.
BThe Central Government (Ministry of Corporate Affairs).
CThe reporting company in which they hold the SBO.
DThe Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Q373SBO

Under the Companies Act, 2013, if a company has a "Significant Beneficial Owner" (SBO), what is the general threshold of indirect holding (along with direct holding, if any) in shares or voting rights that typically triggers SBO status for an individual?

AMore than 5%
BNot less than 10%
CNot less than 15%
DMore than 25%
SEBI 1 question
Q374SEBI

What is the maximum penalty that SEBI can impose on an intermediary (like a stockbroker) if they fail to enter into an agreement with a client as required by SEBI regulations?

ARs. 1 lakh for each day during which such failure continues, or Rs. 1 crore, whichever is lower.
BA fixed penalty of Rs. 5 lakhs.
CRs. 10,000 for each day of failure.
DA warning and direction to enter into the agreement within 7 days.
SEBI Act 2 questions
Q375SEBI Act

By whom can the Chairperson of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) be removed from office, and what is the typical prior notice period or alternative?

ABy the Supreme Court, with 1-month notice.
BBy the Central Government, with 3 months' notice or 3 months' salary in lieu thereof.
CBy a majority vote of SEBI Board members, with 2 months' notice.
DBy the President of India, with 6 months' notice.
Q376SEBI Act

What is the typical term of office for the Chairman and other members of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), and what is the maximum age for holding these positions?

A3 years term, up to age 62.
B5 years term, up to age 65.
C4 years term, up to age 60.
D6 years term, up to age 70.
SEBI Attachment 4 questions
Q377SEBI Attachment

If SEBI attaches assets (e.g., bank accounts) of a person during an investigation, within what specified period must SEBI typically obtain confirmation of this attachment from a Special Court?

AWithin 30 days from attachment.
BWithin 60 days from attachment.
CWithin 90 days from attachment.
DWithin 180 days from attachment.
Q378SEBI Attachment

Under what circumstances can SEBI typically attach the bank accounts of a company?

AIf the company's share price falls below its face value for 30 consecutive days.
BFor failure to pay penalties imposed by SEBI or comply with its directions to refund money to investors.
CIf the company declares a dividend despite having inadequate profits.
DIf the company changes its statutory auditors without SEBI's prior approval.
Q379SEBI Attachment

If SEBI passes an order for attachment of property or bank accounts, from which judicial body must SEBI typically obtain confirmation of such attachment?

AThe High Court of the respective state.
BThe Supreme Court of India.
CA Special Court constituted under the SEBI Act.
DThe National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
Q380SEBI Attachment

If SEBI attaches two bank accounts of a company that defaulted in paying a penalty, but one of these attached accounts was not involved in any fraudulent activity related to the penalty, is the attachment of the "clean" account generally considered valid by SEBI?

AYes, SEBI can attach any account of the defaulter.
BNo, SEBI should only attach accounts directly linked to the specific fraud or default leading to the penalty.
CYes, but only if the amount in the "fraudulent" account is insufficient to cover the penalty.
DAttachment is valid only if both accounts are current accounts.
SEBI Audit Committee 2 questions
Q381SEBI Audit Committee

If an Audit Committee (AC) of a listed entity reviews the financial statements of a material subsidiary, which particular aspect of the subsidiary's financials or operations should it pay special attention to?

AEmployee remuneration policies.
BMarketing and advertising expenditure.
CInvestments made by the subsidiary company.
DCompliance with environmental regulations.
Q382SEBI Audit Committee

For a "material subsidiary" of a listed entity, what is one of the key corporate governance requirements regarding the audit committee of the listed holding company?

AThe audit committee of the holding company must have at least one common director with the subsidiary's audit committee.
BThe audit committee of the listed entity shall review the financial statements, in particular, the investments made by the unlisted subsidiary company.
CAll members of the audit committee of the material subsidiary must be independent directors of the holding company.
DThe material subsidiary is not required to have its own audit committee if the holding company has one.
SEBI Board Composition 1 question
Q383SEBI Board Composition

A listed company has 1 chairperson (non-executive, not promoter), 2 executive directors, and 3 independent male directors. It falls under the top 2000 listed entities. What adjustment is needed to comply with SEBI (LODR) board composition norms, specifically concerning woman directors and independent directors?

AAppoint 1 woman executive director.
BAppoint 1 woman independent director; no more IDs needed if current 3 are qualified.
CAppoint 1 woman director (can be non-ID/exec); ensure at least 1/3rd of board are IDs if chairperson is regular non-exec.
DAppoint 1 woman director and ensure at least half the board are IDs.
SEBI Book Building 2 questions
Q384SEBI Book Building

In a public issue of shares made through the book-building process, if it is a compulsory book-built issue (e.g., as per SEBI requirements), what is the minimum percentage of the net offer to public that must typically be allocated to Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs)?

ANot more than 35%
BNot less than 50%
CNot less than 60%
DNot less than 75%
Q385SEBI Book Building

In the context of a book-building process for an IPO, what does the "Price Band" refer to?

AThe range of commission payable to the book-running lead managers.
BThe range within which investors can bid for shares, with a floor price and a cap price.
CThe minimum and maximum number of shares an investor can apply for.
DThe period for which the issue will remain open for subscription.
SEBI Committee 1 question
Q386SEBI Committee

What is the minimum number of members required for the Audit Committee of a listed entity as per SEBI (LODR) Regulations, and what is the minimum proportion of independent directors?

AMinimum 2 members; one-half independent directors.
BMinimum 3 members; two-thirds independent directors.
CMinimum 3 members; majority must be independent directors.
DMinimum 5 members; all must be independent directors.
SEBI Committees 2 questions
Q387SEBI Committees

As per SEBI (LODR) Regulations, what is the maximum number of committees of listed entities (across all listed entities in which the person is a director) that a director can be a member of, and what is the maximum number of such committees they can chair?

AMember of 7 committees; Chairperson of 3 committees.
BMember of 10 committees; Chairperson of 5 committees.
CMember of 12 committees; Chairperson of 7 committees.
DNo specific limit, depends on individual capacity.
Q388SEBI Committees

Under SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015, what is the primary role of a "Stakeholders Relationship Committee" in a listed entity?

ATo approve related party transactions.
BTo recommend the appointment and remuneration of directors.
CTo consider and resolve the grievances of security holders of the listed entity.
DTo oversee the company's financial reporting process and internal controls.
SEBI Compliance 1 question
Q389SEBI Compliance

A listed company, PQR Ltd., needs to submit its quarterly compliance report on corporate governance directly to SEBI. According to the information in your PDF, by what date must this typically be submitted?

AWithin 7 days of the quarter end.
BWithin 15 days of the quarter end.
CWithin 21 days of the quarter end.
DWithin 45 days of the quarter end.
SEBI Delisting 2 questions
Q390SEBI Delisting

Under what circumstances can a listed company typically proceed with a voluntary delisting of its equity shares from all recognised stock exchanges where they are listed?

AIf its net worth turns negative for two consecutive years.
BIf it obtains approval from SEBI and complies with the delisting regulations, including an offer to remaining shareholders.
CIf its market capitalization falls below Rs. 10 crores.
DIf it merges with an unlisted company.
Q391SEBI Delisting

Under the SEBI (Delisting of Equity Shares) Regulations, what is a key condition for a company to voluntarily delist its shares if it involves an exit opportunity to public shareholders through a reverse book-building process?

AThe offer price discovered must be acceptable to the majority of public shareholders who tender their shares.
BThe promoter's shareholding must reach at least 90% post the delisting offer.
CThe company must have been listed for at least 5 years.
DThe delisting proposal must be approved by the NCLT.
SEBI Dividend 1 question
Q392SEBI Dividend

How much prior intimation must a listed company typically give to the stock exchange(s) about a Board meeting where a proposal for declaration of interim dividend is to be considered?

AAt least 2 working days in advance.
BAt least 5 calendar days in advance.
CAt least 7 working days in advance.
DNo prior intimation is required for interim dividend declaration.
SEBI Documents 1 question
Q393SEBI Documents

How many copies of the draft offer document are generally required to be filed with SEBI when a company makes a public issue of securities?

AOne physical copy and one electronic copy.
BThree physical copies.
CFive physical copies and one electronic copy.
DOnly an electronic copy through SEBI's portal.
SEBI Enforcement 3 questions
Q394SEBI Enforcement

SEBI has the power to impound and retain proceeds or securities in respect of any transaction that is under investigation for suspected insider trading or fraudulent practices. What is the typical maximum initial period for which such impounding can be done before needing confirmation or further orders?

AUp to 30 days.
BUp to 60 days.
CUp to 90 days.
DUp to 180 days.
Q395SEBI Enforcement

SEBI can take various actions against a person found guilty of insider trading. Which of the following is generally NOT an action SEBI would directly take as a primary measure, although it might be a consequence of other actions?

AImposing a monetary penalty.
BDirecting disgorgement of ill-gotten gains.
CIssuing an order to imprison the guilty person for a specified term.
DDebarring the person from accessing the securities market.
Q396SEBI Enforcement

If SEBI takes action against a person for insider trading, which of the following is a common action SEBI is empowered to take directly, in addition to imposing monetary penalties?

AIssue an arrest warrant for the person.
BAttach the person's passport.
CDebar the person from accessing the securities market for a specified period.
DOrder the dissolution of the company whose shares were traded.
SEBI Financial Results 1 question
Q397SEBI Financial Results

According to information in your PDF, by what date must a listed company typically submit its quarterly unaudited financial results to the Stock Exchange?

AWithin 21 days of the quarter end.
BWithin 30 days of the quarter end.
CWithin 45 days of the quarter end.
DWithin 60 days of the quarter end.
SEBI IPO 11 questions
Q398SEBI IPO

For an Initial Public Offering (IPO), what is the minimum lock-in period typically applicable to 20% of the post-issue share capital held by promoters?

A6 months
B1 year
C18 months
D3 years
Q399SEBI IPO

For promoters of a company making an Initial Public Offering (IPO), what is the typical lock- in period for their shareholding that is in excess of the minimum promoter's contribution (which itself is locked for 3 years)?

A6 months from the date of allotment.
B1 year from the date of allotment.
C18 months from the date of allotment.
D3 years from the date of allotment.
Q400SEBI IPO

What is the typical minimum and maximum number of working days for which an Initial Public Offering (IPO) must be kept open for subscription?

AMinimum 2 days, Maximum 7 days.
BMinimum 3 days, Maximum 10 days.
CMinimum 5 days, Maximum 15 days.
DMinimum 3 days, Maximum 5 days.
Q401SEBI IPO

For a company to be eligible to make an Initial Public Offering (IPO) through the main board, what is a common requirement regarding its net tangible assets in each of the three preceding full years?

AAt least Rs. 1 crore, with at least 30% in monetary assets.
BAt least Rs. 3 crores, with at least 50% in monetary assets.
CAt least Rs. 5 crores, with at least 25% in monetary assets.
DAt least Rs. 10 crores, with no specific monetary asset condition.
Q402SEBI IPO

When a company makes an Initial Public Offering (IPO) and allocates shares to anchor investors, what is the general SEBI requirement regarding the price at which shares are offered to these anchor investors compared to the public issue price?

AAnchor investors must be offered a discount of at least 5% to the public issue price.
BThe price offered to anchor investors must be the same as the price offered to the public.
CAnchor investors can be offered shares at a premium not exceeding 10% of the public issue price.
DThe price for anchor investors is determined by a separate book-building process.
Q403SEBI IPO

What is the minimum application value (often referred to as minimum subscription amount payable per application) in an IPO as per SEBI (ICDR) Regulations for shares offered in the main board, in terms of price band?

ABetween Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 7,500.
BBetween Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 15,000.
CBetween Rs. 15,000 and Rs. 20,000.
DNot less than 25% of the issue price per share.
Q404SEBI IPO

If an issuer of securities wishes to revise the price band or issue price of an IPO, up to how many working days prior to the opening of the offer can such a revision typically be made?

AUp to 1 working day prior.
BUp to 3 working days prior.
CUp to 5 working days prior.
DUp to 7 working days prior.
Q405SEBI IPO

In an Initial Public Offering (IPO), what is the primary purpose of a "Green Shoe Option" (overallotment option) if exercised by the company/underwriters?

ATo reduce the issue size if undersubscribed.
BTo stabilize the post-listing price of the shares.
CTo allow promoters to sell additional shares.
DTo offer a discount to retail investors.
Q406SEBI IPO

A company is making an Initial Public Offering (IPO). If the company decides to adjust the issue price (within the price band or by revising the band) after it has been initially set, what is generally permissible regarding upward and downward adjustments?

AOnly upward revision is allowed.
BOnly downward revision is allowed.
CThe company can adjust the issue price both upward and downward, subject to SEBI regulations and timelines.
DNo adjustment is allowed once the price band is announced.
Q407SEBI IPO

Can a company making an Initial Public Offering (IPO) proceed with the issue if it has outstanding Employee Stock Options (ESOPs) that have been granted but not yet exercised?

ANo, all outstanding ESOPs must be vested and exercised or cancelled before an IPO.
BYes, an IPO can be made even if ESOPs are outstanding, subject to disclosures and compliance with regulations.
COnly if the ESOPs were granted more than 3 years prior to the IPO filing.
DOnly if less than 5% of the company's capital is under ESOPs.
Q408SEBI IPO

What is the primary purpose of an "Escrow Account" in the context of a public issue of securities (e.g., an IPO)?

ATo pay dividends to shareholders.
BTo hold the application money received from investors until allotment is finalized.
CTo pay underwriting commission and brokerage.
DTo fund the company's future expansion projects.
SEBI Independent Directors 1 question
Q409SEBI Independent Directors

If the chairperson of the board of directors of a top listed entity is a non-executive director but is related to promoters or is a promoter themselves, what proportion of the board should typically comprise Independent Directors?

AAt least one-third of the board.
BAt least one-half of the board.
CAt least two-thirds of the board.
DAll directors excluding the chairperson must be independent.
SEBI Insider Trading 6 questions
Q410SEBI Insider Trading

What is the typical monetary penalty range for insider trading under the SEBI Act, if found guilty?

AMin Rs. 1 lakh to Max Rs. 1 crore.
BMin Rs. 5 lakhs to Max Rs. 10 crores or twice the profit made.
CMin Rs. 10 lakhs to Max the higher of Rs. 25 crores or three times the profit made.
DA fixed penalty of Rs. 5 crores.
Q411SEBI Insider Trading

For what minimum period must a company typically maintain disclosures related to insider trading made by its designated persons?

A1 year
B3 years
C5 years
D7 years
Q412SEBI Insider Trading

If a Key Managerial Personnel (KMP) of a listed company, or their immediate relative, trades in the company's securities while in possession of Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI), what is a typical implication after the UPSI becomes public, apart from penalties?

AThey must transfer any profit made to the IEPF.
BThey are barred from trading in any listed security for 1 year.
CThere is often a cooling-off period or restriction before they can trade in the company's securities again, even after UPSI is public.
DTheir employment contract is automatically terminated.
Q413SEBI Insider Trading

Under SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, what is the typical trading window closure period before the declaration of financial results?

AFrom the end of every quarter until 24 hours after declaration of results.
BFrom the end of every quarter until 48 hours after declaration of results.
C7 days prior to Board meeting for results until 48 hours after declaration.
D15 days prior to Board meeting for results until 24 hours after declaration.
Q414SEBI Insider Trading

Which of the following actions would generally NOT amount to insider trading under SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015?

ATrading by a designated person during a trading window closure period.
BCommunicating UPSI to a person for legitimate purposes in performance of duties.
CTrading by an insider based on UPSI not yet public.
DA KMP trading immediately after UPSI becomes generally available but before a cooling-off period, if any, expires.
Q415SEBI Insider Trading

A Chartered Accountant, while auditing DEF Ltd., learns of significant Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI) and subsequently communicates this information to a friend before it is made public. What does this action primarily constitute under SEBI regulations?

AA breach of professional ethics only.
BMarket manipulation.
CInsider trading.
DA failure to exercise due diligence.
SEBI Investigation 5 questions
Q416SEBI Investigation

If SEBI is conducting an investigation and seizes books of account or other documents, for what maximum initial period can such books generally be kept in custody?

A3 months
B6 months
C12 months
DUntil the investigation is complete.
Q417SEBI Investigation

If an investigating officer under the SEBI Act takes notes of an examination of a person, what is a key procedural requirement regarding these notes for them to be potentially used in evidence against that person?

AThe notes must be attested by two independent witnesses.
BThe notes must be taken down in writing, read over to or by the person examined, and signed by them.
CThe notes must be video recorded along with the person's statement.
DThe notes must be countersigned by a SEBI Board Member.
Q418SEBI Investigation

If SEBI is conducting an investigation, and an officer impounds books and papers, what is a key responsibility of the person from whose custody such items were impounded regarding providing assistance?

ATo provide assistance only if a court order mandates it.
BTo provide assistance only for understanding handwritten notes.
CThey have no obligation to provide any assistance after impounding.
DTo allow the officer to take notes and provide explanation relating to the impounded items.
Q419SEBI Investigation

Who can authorize an investigating authority under the SEBI Act, 1992, to impound and retain books, registers, and other documents produced during an investigation, if deemed necessary?

AThe Chief Vigilance Officer of SEBI.
BThe concerned Stock Exchange where the company is listed.
CA Magistrate of the first class or a Judge of a designated Special Court upon application by the investigating authority.
DThe Chairman of SEBI directly.
Q420SEBI Investigation

During an investigation by SEBI, if the investigating authority has reasonable grounds to believe that books, registers, or other documents may be destroyed, mutilated, altered, falsified or secreted, who can typically authorize the seizure of such items?

AAny SEBI Board Member.
BThe Chairman of SEBI.
CA Magistrate or Judge of a designated court, upon application by the investigating authority.
DThe investigating authority themselves, by recording reasons in writing.
SEBI LODR 10 questions
Q421SEBI LODR

For which of the following companies is maintaining a minimum public shareholding (MPS) of at least 25% generally a mandatory continuous listing requirement?

AAll private limited companies.
BAll unlisted public companies with paid-up capital above Rs. 10 crores.
CAll listed public companies (subject to certain exceptions and timelines).
DOnly Government companies listed on stock exchanges.
Q422SEBI LODR

If a listed company makes any changes to its annual report after it has been approved by the Board but before the AGM, within what time limit must these changes typically be intimated to the Stock Exchange(s)?

AWithin 24 hours of the change.
BWithin 48 hours of the Annual General Meeting.
CAt least 7 days before the Annual General Meeting.
DSimultaneously with the dispatch of the revised annual report to shareholders.
Q423SEBI LODR

If a listed company's Board of Directors proposes an alteration of the rights of its existing shareholders, how many days prior notice of the Board meeting must generally be given to the Stock Exchange(s)?

AAt least 2 working days.
BAt least 5 calendar days.
CAt least 7 working days.
DAt least 11 calendar days.
Q424SEBI LODR

What is the typical due date for a listed entity to submit its Corporate Governance report to the Stock Exchange(s) for each quarter?

AWithin 7 days from the end of the quarter.
BWithin 15 days from the end of the quarter.
CWithin 21 days from the end of the quarter.
DWithin 45 days from the end of the quarter.
Q425SEBI LODR

In the context of SEBI (LODR) Regulations, if a person is a director (but not an Independent Director) of a listed company, are they considered "related to the promoter" for the purpose of determining board composition requirements (e.g., number of IDs)?

ANo, only blood relatives of promoters are considered related.
BYes, any non-ID director can be considered as related to promoter or part of promoter group for these specific board composition rules.
COnly if the director holds more than 2% shares of the company.
DOnly if the director was nominated by the promoter.
Q426SEBI LODR

Under the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, which committee of the Board of a listed entity is primarily responsible for formulating a policy on materiality of related party transactions and for dealing with conflicts of interest?

AAudit Committee.
BNomination and Remuneration Committee.
CStakeholders Relationship Committee.
DRisk Management Committee.
Q427SEBI LODR

Under SEBI (LODR) Regulations, what is the typical cooling-off period after which a former non-executive director of a listed entity can be appointed as an independent director in the same company, assuming they meet other independence criteria?

ANo cooling-off period is required.
BA cooling-off period of one year.
CA cooling-off period of two years.
DA cooling-off period of three years.
Q428SEBI LODR

Under SEBI (LODR) Regulations, what is the typical timeframe within which a listed entity must intimate the stock exchange(s) of any attachment or prohibitory orders restraining the entity from transferring securities?

AWithin 12 hours.
BWithin 24 hours from the occurrence of the event.
CWithin 48 hours.
DWithin 7 days.
Q429SEBI LODR

When a listed company provides a statement to the Stock Exchange regarding investor grievances for a quarter, what details should it ideally include beyond just the number of complaints unresolved at the end of the quarter?

AOnly the names of investors whose complaints are unresolved.
BA summary of major complaints and the average resolution time.
CDetails like complaints pending at start, received, disposed of during quarter, and pending at end of quarter.
DA declaration that all complaints will be resolved within the next quarter.
Q430SEBI LODR

Under SEBI (LODR) Regulations, what is the minimum frequency for Board meetings of a listed entity?

AAt least one meeting every calendar quarter, with a maximum gap of 120 days between any two meetings.
BAt least two meetings in a financial year.
CAt least one meeting every six months.
DAs frequently as deemed necessary by the Chairperson.
SEBI Monitoring 2 questions
Q431SEBI Monitoring

When is an issuer company required to arrange for a Credit Rating Agency (CRA) to monitor the utilisation of proceeds from a public issue or rights issue (excluding issues by banks/PFIs)?

AIf the issue size exceeds Rs. 50 crores.
BIf the issue size exceeds Rs. 100 crores.
CIf the issue size exceeds Rs. 250 crores.
DMonitoring by a CRA is always optional.
Q432SEBI Monitoring

When is a company issuing specified securities (e.g., in a public issue or rights issue) typically required to appoint a Credit Rating Agency (CRA) as a monitoring agency for the issue proceeds?

AAlways for any public or rights issue.
BOnly if the issue is a debt issue.
CAt the time of a public issue or rights issue if the issue size exceeds a prescribed threshold (e.g., Rs. 100 crores).
DOnly if the company has a below-average credit rating itself.
SEBI O F S 1 question
Q433SEBI O F S

In the context of a public issue of shares, what does an "Offer for Sale" (OFS) by existing shareholders (e.g., promoters) primarily entail?

AThe company issues new shares to the public to raise capital.
BExisting shareholders sell a part of their shareholding to the public through an offer document.
CThe company buys back its own shares from the public.
DThe company allots shares to its employees under an ESOP scheme.
SEBI Penalties 4 questions
Q434SEBI Penalties

If a stockbroker is found to have charged brokerage in excess of what is specified by SEBI regulations, what is the typical monetary penalty?

ARs. 10,000 per instance.
BMinimum Rs. 1 lakh, up to the higher of Rs. 1 crore or three times the excess brokerage.
CMinimum Rs. 1 lakh, up to five times the amount of brokerage charged in excess.
DA fixed penalty of Rs. 5 lakhs.
Q435SEBI Penalties

If an Investment Analyst or Research Analyst fails to comply with SEBI regulations (e.g., Section 15EB provisions), what is the typical monetary penalty range?

ARs. 10,000 to Rs. 1 lakh.
BRs. 50,000 to Rs. 5 lakhs, plus Rs. 10,000/day for continuing failure.
CMinimum Rs. 1 lakh, up to Rs. 1 crore, and Rs. 1 lakh/day for continuing failure up to Rs. 1 crore.
DA fixed penalty of Rs. 10 lakhs.
Q436SEBI Penalties

What is the typical monetary penalty range if a person is found guilty of indulging in unfair trade practices in the securities market under the SEBI Act?

AMin Rs. 1 lakh to Max Rs. 1 crore or three times the profit made.
BMin Rs. 5 lakhs to Max the higher of Rs. 25 crores or three times the profit made.
CMin Rs. 10 lakhs to Max Rs. 10 crores.
DA fixed penalty of Rs. 1 crore.
Q437SEBI Penalties

If a penalty was imposed on a person for insider trading before their death, are their legal representatives liable to pay that penalty from the deceased's estate?

ANo, penalty liability extinguishes upon death.
BYes, legal representatives are always fully liable for such penalties.
CYes, but only if the penalty had been quantified and imposed before the death of the accused person.
DOnly if the legal representatives were also found to be involved in the insider trading.
SEBI Recovery 3 questions
Q438SEBI Recovery

A deceased person had transferred a Fixed Deposit to their married son, a car to their son's wife, and an immovable property to their sister before passing away. If SEBI needs to recover a penalty imposed on the deceased person, from which of these assets can recovery generally be made if the transfers were not for adequate consideration?

AOnly from the Fixed Deposit transferred to the son.
BFrom the FD with son, car with son's wife, but not property with sister (as sister is not typically an immediate heir liable for deemed gifts).
CFrom all three assets if transfers were intended to evade penalty.
DRecovery can be made from assets transferred to spouse, minor child, son's wife, son's child without adequate consideration. Assets with major child/sister may be excluded if not part of this.
Q439SEBI Recovery

Which Act's provisions are primarily made applicable for the recovery of amounts due to SEBI (e.g., penalties) by attaching and selling movable/immovable property, bank accounts, etc., under section 28A of the SEBI Act?

AThe Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
BThe Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993.
CThe Income-tax Act, 1961 (specifically, the Second Schedule provisions for recovery of tax).
DThe Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, 2002.
Q440SEBI Recovery

If SEBI needs to recover claims (e.g., penalties) by means of attachment and sale of property, through whom does SEBI typically appoint a Recovery Officer to effect such recovery?

AA senior officer of SEBI itself.
BAn officer of the Central Government not below the rank of Under Secretary.
CAn officer of the Board (SEBI) empowered by a general or special order.
DA designated officer from the Income Tax Department.
SEBI Reports 2 questions
Q441SEBI Reports

A lead manager to a public issue is required to submit a post-issue report to SEBI. In which part of which schedule is the format for this report typically given, and within how many days of allotment (or refund) must the Due Diligence (DD) certificate be submitted?

AReport in Part B of Sch XVI; DD cert in 10 days.
BReport in Part A of Sch XVII; DD cert (Form F) in 7 days.
CReport in Part C of Sch XVIII; DD cert in 15 days.
DReport in Part A of Sch XV; DD cert in 5 days.
Q442SEBI Reports

What is the typical time limit within which lead managers must submit a final post-issue report (e.g., balance report after initial 7-day report) to SEBI after an issue?

AWithin 15 days of allotment or refund.
BWithin 30 days of listing of securities.
CThis refers to the 7-day report for basis of allotment / refund. A comprehensive final report may have different timelines or be part of ongoing compliance.
DWithin 7 days of the date of finalization of basis of allotment or refund of money, whichever is later.
SEBI Risk Management 1 question
Q443SEBI Risk Management

Under the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, what is the primary objective of forming a "Risk Management Committee" by certain listed entities?

ATo approve all financial transactions of the company.
BTo oversee the company's corporate social responsibility initiatives.
CTo assist the Board in overseeing and approving the company's risk management policy and framework.
DTo conduct internal audit of all departments.
SEBI Search Seizure 1 question
Q444SEBI Search Seizure

For searches and seizures conducted by an investigating authority under the SEBI Act, 1992, the provisions of which other major procedural law are generally made applicable?

AThe Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
BThe Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
CThe Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
DThe Indian Penal Code, 1860.
SEBI Takeover Code 1 question
Q445SEBI Takeover Code

Under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011, acquiring what percentage of voting rights in a listed target company by an acquirer (along with PACs) would typically trigger a mandatory open offer to public shareholders?

A10% or more
B15% or more
C20% or more
D25% or more
SEBI Trading Disclosures 1 question
Q446SEBI Trading Disclosures

Within how many trading days must a company typically notify the Stock Exchange(s) about particulars of trading in its securities by its Promoters, members of the promoter group, or Directors, after becoming aware of such information or receiving disclosure?

AWithin 1 trading day.
BWithin 2 trading days.
CWithin 3 trading days.
DWithin 5 trading days.
SEZ Company 1 question
Q447SEZ Company

A company incorporated in a Special Economic Zone (SEZ) wishes to appoint Mr. Jack, a non-resident, as its Managing Director. Is the usual condition requiring an MD to be resident in India applicable to this SEZ company?

AYes, the residency requirement applies to all Indian companies, including SEZ units.
BNo, companies in SEZs are completely exempt from all managerial remuneration and appointment guidelines.
CNo, the condition of being resident in India is generally not applicable for appointing an MD of a company in an SEZ.
DYes, but Mr. Jack can seek exemption from the Ministry of Commerce.
SFIO 3 questions
Q448SFIO

If the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) has reason to believe (recorded in writing) that a person has been guilty of an offence punishable under sections referred in section 212(6) of the Companies Act, 2013, can an officer of SFIO arrest such person without a warrant?

ANo, SFIO always requires a warrant from a Magistrate.
BYes, but only if the person is a director or key managerial personnel.
CYes, if the SFIO officer is not below the rank of Assistant Director and is authorized by the Central Government.
DOnly if the person is caught in the act of committing the fraud.
Q449SFIO

Which of the following is a specified ground upon which the Central Government (CG) may order an investigation into the affairs of a company by the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)?

AA request from a single director alleging minor financial irregularities.
BOn intimation of an ordinary resolution passed by the company requesting such an investigation.
CIn the public interest, based on CG's own assessment.
DIf the company has defaulted in repaying bank loans for more than one year.
Q450SFIO

In which of the following situations might the Central Government choose NOT to order an SFIO investigation into a company, even if requested?

AWhen the Registrar submits a report indicating serious fraud.
BWhen the company passes a special resolution requesting an SFIO investigation.
CWhen a department of the State Government requests an SFIO investigation.
DWhen the company's Board of Directors passes a resolution requesting an SFIO investigation.
SFIO Bail 2 questions
Q451SFIO Bail

When considering bail for an offence punishable under section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013 (punishment for fraud), if investigated by SFIO, what are the key conditions under section 212(6) that the Special Court must be satisfied with, in addition to giving the Public Prosecutor an opportunity to oppose the bail?

AThe accused is a first-time offender and the amount involved is less than Rs. 1 crore.
BThere are reasonable grounds for believing the accused is not guilty and is not likely to commit any offence while on bail.
CThe accused has already been in custody for more than one year.
DThe accused provides a substantial security deposit and surrenders their passport.
Q452SFIO Bail

In cases investigated by the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) for offences such as those under section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013, who primarily grants bail to the accused?

AThe investigating officer of SFIO.
BThe Central Government (Ministry of Corporate Affairs).
CThe Special Court constituted for such offences.
DThe High Court of the respective state.
Search Seizure 1 question
Q453Search Seizure

If an inspector, during an investigation, needs to enter any place and seize books and papers which they believe might be destroyed or tampered with, whose prior permission must they generally obtain?

AThe Board of Directors of the company under investigation.
BThe Registrar of Companies (ROC).
CA Special Court (or Magistrate of First Class if Special Court not designated).
DThe Central Government directly.
Secretarial Audit 1 question
Q454Secretarial Audit

To whom is the Secretarial Audit Report, prepared by a Company Secretary in Practice, primarily addressed?

AThe Registrar of Companies (ROC).
BThe Central Government (Ministry of Corporate Affairs).
CThe Board of Directors of the company.
DThe shareholders of the company, via the Audit Committee.
Securities Law 1 question
Q455Securities Law

Which of the following is generally NOT considered a "derivative" instrument under securities laws?

AFutures contracts
BOptions contracts
CForward contracts
DEquity shares issued directly by a company
Share Capital Reduction 1 question
Q456Share Capital Reduction

If a company wants to reduce its share capital, which of the following is a key requirement in addition to passing a special resolution?

AApproval from its debenture holders.
BConfirmation by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
CConsent from the Registrar of Companies (ROC).
DApproval from the Central Government.
Share Transfer 1 question
Q457Share Transfer

If a company refuses to register a transfer of shares, within what period from the date on which the instrument of transfer was delivered to the company must it send a notice of refusal to the transferor and the transferee?

AWithin 15 days.
BWithin 30 days.
CWithin 45 days.
DWithin 60 days.
Shareholder Rights 1 question
Q458Shareholder Rights

A company has issued Class A and Class B equity shares. It now proposes to vary the rights attached to Class A shares in a manner that also affects the rights of Class B shareholders. What specific approval, beyond any board or general company approval, is required from the Class B shareholders for this variation to be effective, assuming the Articles are silent on a higher percentage?

AConsent in writing from holders of not less than half of the issued shares of Class B.
BA special resolution passed at a separate meeting of the Class B shareholders.
CAn ordinary resolution passed at a separate meeting of the Class B shareholders.
DNo separate approval is needed from Class B if Class A shareholders approve by special resolution.
Small Company 2 questions
Q459Small Company

Which of the following conditions, if met by a private company in the immediately preceding financial year, would prevent it from being classified as a "Small Company" under the Companies Act, 2013, even if its paid-up capital is below the prescribed threshold?

AIts turnover is exactly ₹30 crores.
BIt is a subsidiary of a public company.
CIt has borrowings from banks not exceeding ₹1 crore.
DIt has not defaulted in filing its annual returns.
Q460Small Company

A private company has a paid-up share capital of Rs. 1.5 crores and a turnover of Rs. 15 crores as per its last profit and loss account. Is it classified as a "Small Company" if it is not a holding or subsidiary of another company and not a Section 8 company or a company governed by any special Act?

AYes, because its paid-up capital is below Rs. 4 crores and turnover below Rs. 40 crores.
BNo, because its paid-up capital exceeds Rs. 1 crore.
CNo, because its turnover exceeds Rs. 10 crores.
DYes, only if its borrowings are also below Rs. 50 crores.
Strike Off 1 question
Q461Strike Off

If a company receives a notice from the Registrar of Companies (ROC) regarding its intention to strike off the company's name from the register, within how many days can the company send its representations to the ROC?

A15 days from the date of the notice.
B30 days from the date of the notice.
C45 days from the date of the notice.
D60 days from the date of the notice.
Strike Off Effect 1 question
Q462Strike Off Effect

If a company's certificate of incorporation (COR) has been cancelled and its name struck off, can the company still take legal action to recover its outstanding dues from debtors?

ANo, once struck off, all rights of the company cease immediately.
BYes, the company's right to recover dues and discharge liabilities continues even after its name is struck off.
COnly if the NCLT grants specific permission for recovery proceedings.
DOnly for dues that became receivable within one year prior to striking off.
Tribunal Orders 2 questions
Q463Tribunal Orders

If the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) passes an order under section 242 removing a director for being not fit and proper (based on an application by the Central Government under section 241 read with 243), within what period must a copy of the Tribunal's order be filed with the Registrar of Companies (ROC)?

AWithin 7 days from the date of the order.
BWithin 15 days from the date of the order.
CWithin 30 days from the date of the order.
DWithin 60 days from the date of the order.
Q464Tribunal Orders

If the NCLT has made alterations to a company's Memorandum or Articles of Association through an order (e.g., under section 242), can the company subsequently make any alteration that is inconsistent with the NCLT's order?

ANo, the NCLT's order is final and cannot be overridden by the company.
BYes, by passing a special resolution.
CYes, but only with the prior leave (permission) of the NCLT.
DYes, after a period of five years from the NCLT's order.
Tribunal Powers 1 question
Q465Tribunal Powers

When the Tribunal orders recovery of undue gain made by a director or officer, which of the following is generally not within the Tribunal's power regarding the utilisation of such recovered amount?

ACrediting the amount to the Investor Education and Protection Fund.
BDistributing the amount among a class of members or debenture holders.
COrdering the repayment of the money to the specific company from which the undue gain was made.
DUsing the amount for general charitable purposes specified by the Tribunal.
Unpaid Dividend 1 question
Q466Unpaid Dividend

If a dividend has been declared by a company but has not been paid or claimed within 30 days from the date of declaration, to which account must the company transfer the total amount of unpaid or unclaimed dividend?

AInvestor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF)
BGeneral Reserve
CUnpaid Dividend
DCapital Redemption Reserve Account
Vacation Of Office 2 questions
Q467Vacation Of Office

When an order is passed by a competent authority (e.g., Tribunal) requiring a director's office to be vacated due to disqualification or other specified reasons, within how many days from the date of such order must the office typically be vacated?

AImmediately upon receipt of the order.
BWithin 7 days from the date of the order.
CWithin 30 days from the date of the order.
DWithin 60 days from the date of the order.
Q468Vacation Of Office

If a director fails to attend any Board meeting for a continuous period of twelve months, with or without seeking leave of absence, what is the immediate consequence for that director?

AThey are liable for a monetary penalty only.
BThey must seek re-appointment at the next general meeting.
CTheir office as director becomes vacant automatically.
DThe Board must pass a resolution to remove them.
Vigil Mechanism 1 question
Q469Vigil Mechanism

What is the "Vigil Mechanism" or "Whistle Blower Policy" that certain classes of companies are required to establish under the Companies Act, 2013?

AA mechanism for employees to report unethical behavior or fraud directly to SEBI.
BA system for directors and employees to report genuine concerns or grievances about unethical behavior, actual or suspected fraud or violation of the company's code of conduct.
CA grievance redressal system specifically for customers of the company.
DA system for confidential reporting of sexual harassment complaints at the workplace.
Winding Up 13 questions
Q470Winding Up

In the event of a company being wound up, which of the following can generally be considered a contributory?

AOnly holders of partly paid-up shares.
BHolders of fully paid-up shares.
COnly secured creditors of the company.
DEmployees owed wages.
Q471Winding Up

Who is generally eligible to be appointed as a provisional liquidator or a company liquidator by the Tribunal in case of winding up under the Companies Act, 2013?

AAny officer of the company nominated by the Board.
BA senior advocate with at least 10 years of experience.
CAn Insolvency Professional appointed from a panel maintained by the Central Government.
DOnly an official from the office of the Official Liquidator.
Q472Winding Up

Does the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) have the authority to order the winding up of a company under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013?

ANo, winding up orders can only be passed by High Courts.
BNo, only voluntary winding up is permitted, initiated by members or creditors.
CYes, the NCLT has the authority to pass orders for the winding up of a company on specified grounds.
DYes, but only for companies with a paid-up capital below ?1 crore.
Q473Winding Up

In a winding-up scenario, can a past member who transferred their partly paid-up shares more than one year before the commencement of winding up be generally held liable to contribute to the company's assets?

AYes, always liable for the unpaid amount on shares.
BYes, but only if current members are unable to satisfy the contributions required.
CNo, liability typically ceases after one year from ceasing to be a member for shares fully transferred.
DNo, only present members are liable.
Q474Winding Up

If a member transfers their partly paid-up shares in a company less than one year before the commencement of its winding up, what is a key obligation of the company or liquidator towards the transferee regarding the unpaid amount?

AThe transferee automatically becomes liable for all past unpaid calls.
BThe company must waive the unpaid amount for the transferee.
CThe company/liquidator must duly notify the transferee of the amount due on such shares/debentures.
DThe transferor remains solely liable for the unpaid amount.
Q475Winding Up

In the event of a company being wound up, if the Company Liquidator needs to manage pending legal proceedings on behalf of the company, within how many days of forming an opinion must the CL typically submit a report to the NCLT?

AWithin 30 days.
BWithin 45 days.
CWithin 60 days.
DWithin 90 days.
Q476Winding Up

If an advisory committee has been constituted for a winding-up process, before whom must the Company Liquidator place the draft final report before submitting it to the NCLT?

AThe Registrar of Companies.
BThe Central Government.
CThe Advisory Committee.
DDirectly to the NCLT.
Q477Winding Up

During a company's winding up, if its assets are sufficient to cover all its debts and liabilities, can shareholders who hold partly paid-up shares choose not to pay the remaining unpaid amount on their shares?

ANo, unpaid amounts must always be paid regardless of asset sufficiency.
BYes, if the liquidator confirms in writing that assets are sufficient.
CYes, shareholders can generally opt out of paying calls if assets are sufficient to cover all dues.
DOnly if a special resolution is passed by the members.
Q478Winding Up

Can the NCLT appoint a Company Liquidator in a winding-up proceeding without giving prior notice or an opportunity of being heard to the company against whom the winding-up petition is filed?

ANo, an opportunity of being heard is an absolute right in all cases.
BYes, if the Tribunal records special reasons in writing for doing so.
COnly if the company has already been declared defunct by the ROC.
DOnly if the petition is filed by the Central Government.
Q479Winding Up

Can the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) pass an order for the winding up of a company if it is of the opinion that it is "just and equitable" that the company should be wound up, even without receiving a specific petition detailing other statutory grounds?

ANo, "just and equitable" is not a standalone ground.
BYes, this is a recognized ground upon which the Tribunal can order winding up.
COnly if the company has been making losses for five consecutive years.
DOnly if all members of the company consent to it.
Q480Winding Up

What is the typical time limit prescribed for the Adjudicating Authority (NCLT) to admit or reject an application for winding up of a company from the date of its presentation?

AWithin 30 days.
BWithin 60 days.
CWithin 90 days.
DWithin 120 days.
Q481Winding Up

Can the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) order the winding up of a company on the grounds that it is "just and equitable" to do so, even without issuing a formal notice or calling for representations from the company prior to passing such an order?

ANo, natural justice requires notice and hearing in all circumstances.
BYes, if the NCLT records specific and compelling reasons in writing for dispensing with notice, in exceptional circumstances.
COnly if the company has already been declared defunct.
DOnly if the petition is filed by a regulatory authority like ROC or SEBI.
Q482Winding Up

What is the time limit within which a statement of affairs of the company must typically be submitted to the Company Liquidator by the directors and officers in a winding up ordered by the Tribunal?

AWithin 15 days from the relevant date.
BWithin 21 days from the relevant date (extendable by Tribunal up to 3 months).
CWithin 30 days from the relevant date.
DWithin 45 days from the relevant date.
Winding Up Advisory Committee 1 question
Q483Winding Up Advisory Committee

What is the maximum number of members that can constitute an advisory committee formed by the NCLT during the winding up of a company to advise the Company Liquidator?

AMaximum 5 members
BMaximum 7 members
CMaximum 10 members
DMaximum 12 members
Winding Up Contributory 3 questions
Q484Winding Up Contributory

A past member (List B contributory) of a company in winding up is typically liable to contribute in respect of any debt or liability of the company an amount not exceeding:

AThe total amount of debts outstanding at the time of winding up.
BThe amount, if any, unpaid on the shares in respect of which they are liable as a past member.
CA sum equal to the nominal value of shares they held.
D10% of the company's total deficit.
Q485Winding Up Contributory

In the event that contributories fail to pay the amounts due from them during a company's winding up, who among the following might be called upon to contribute to the company's capital, assuming their liability is unlimited under the company's constitution?

AOnly the secured creditors.
BOnly past members who transferred shares within one year.
CDirectors or managers whose liability is unlimited.
DThe statutory auditors of the company.
Q486Winding Up Contributory

A past member of a company transferred their partly paid-up shares six months before the commencement of winding up. If the present members' contributions are insufficient to meet the company's liabilities, can this past member be made liable?

ANo, liability ceases immediately upon valid transfer of shares.
BYes, they are liable for all debts contracted before they ceased to be a member, up to the unpaid amount on their former shares.
CNo, only members who held shares for at least one year before transfer can be liable.
DYes, but only if the shares were transferred to a known insolvent person.
Winding Up Petition 4 questions
Q487Winding Up Petition

Can a shareholder holding partly paid-up shares in a company file a petition for the winding up of that company, assuming other conditions for filing are met?

AYes, if they have held the shares for more than six months.
BYes, as long as they are recorded in the register of members.
CNo, generally a contributory is not entitled to present a winding-up petition unless shares are fully paid or originally allotted as fully paid.
DOnly if the partly paid shares constitute more than 10% of the total paid-up capital.
Q488Winding Up Petition

When a petition for winding up is filed with the NCLT under section 272 and a copy is submitted to the Registrar of Companies (ROC), within how many days should the ROC typically submit its views or objections to the NCLT?

AWithin 15 days from receipt of the petition copy.
BWithin 30 days from receipt of the petition copy.
CWithin 60 days from receipt of the petition copy.
DWithin 90 days from receipt of the petition copy.
Q489Winding Up Petition

If a company itself files a petition with the NCLT for its winding up, what is the company typically required to submit along with or in support of its petition concerning its financial affairs?

AA declaration of solvency signed by all directors.
BA report from an independent Registered Valuer on asset valuation.
CAudited financial statements for the last five years.
DA statement of the company's affairs, duly verified, in the prescribed form.
Q490Winding Up Petition

Under what primary condition can the Registrar of Companies (ROC) file an application to the NCLT for the winding up of a company?

AIf the company has defaulted in filing financial statements for one year.
BIf the ROC conducts an inspection and finds minor irregularities.
COnly when specifically authorized by the Central Government to do so.
DIf the company's net worth becomes negative.
Winding Up Priority 1 question
Q491Winding Up Priority

In what order of priority are the costs and expenses of winding up (including the remuneration of the Company Liquidator) typically paid out from the company's assets?

AAfter payment to all secured and unsecured creditors.
BBefore payment of any other dues, including workmen's dues.
CAfter payment of workmen's dues but before unsecured creditors.
DConcurrently with government dues.
Winding Up Records 1 question
Q492Winding Up Records

When a company's affairs have been completely wound up and it is about to be dissolved, for how long must its books and papers generally be preserved from the date of dissolution, as per directions of the Tribunal?

AFor 2 years.
BFor 3 years.
CFor 5 years.
DFor 8 years.
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